100 Most Important MCQs for CNA Part-2 (Medical & Surgical Nursing) Guide by Dr. Abdul Rehman Yousaf

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100 Most Important MCQs for CNA Part-2 (Medical & Surgical Nursing)

(Dr.Abdul Rehman Yousaf)

Complete Exam-Oriented Guide with Explanations

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📌 Introduction

The Certified Nursing Assistant (CNA) Part-2 examination mainly focuses on Medical and Surgical Nursing, where students are tested on their understanding of patient care, disease processes, clinical procedures, and safety measures. Many students fail not because of lack of knowledge, but because they practice MCQs without understanding the concepts.

This Article is written by Dr Abdul Rehman Yousaf This article provides 100 most important MCQs along with clear and simple explanations to help CNA students prepare according to the NEBP exam pattern. These MCQs are designed to strengthen both conceptual understanding and exam confidence.

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🩺 SECTION 1: Fundamentals of Nursing

1. What is the normal body temperature of an adult?

Answer: 37°C
Explanation: Normal body temperature is around 37°C. Any variation may indicate infection or hypothermia.

2. Which sign is NOT included in inflammation?

Answer: Pallor
Explanation: The five signs of inflammation are redness, heat, swelling, pain, and loss of function.

3. Hand hygiene is most effective in preventing:

Answer: Infection
Explanation: Proper hand washing reduces transmission of microorganisms.

4. What position is best for unconscious patients?

Answer: Lateral position
Explanation: It prevents aspiration and keeps the airway open.

5. Normal respiratory rate in adults is:

Answer: 12–20 breaths per minute
Explanation: Rates outside this range may indicate respiratory distress.

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🧪 SECTION 2: Fluid & Electrolyte Balance

6. Normal potassium level in blood is:

Answer: 3.5–5.0 mEq/L
Explanation: Potassium imbalance can affect heart rhythm.

7. Low potassium level is called:

Answer: Hypokalemia
Explanation: It causes muscle weakness and arrhythmias.

8. IV fluids are mainly used to:

Answer: Maintain hydration
Explanation: They replace fluids and electrolytes.

9. Which vein is commonly used for IV cannulation?

Answer: Cephalic vein
Explanation: It is easily accessible and safe.

10. Excess fluid in body causes:

Answer: Edema
Explanation: It occurs due to fluid retention.

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❤️ SECTION 3: Cardiovascular System

11. Normal adult blood pressure is:

Answer: 120/80 mmHg
Explanation: It is considered optimal for healthy adults.

12. Chest pain radiating to left arm indicates:

Answer: Myocardial infarction
Explanation: This is a classic symptom of heart attack.

13. Nitroglycerin is used to treat:

Answer: Angina pectoris
Explanation: It dilates blood vessels and reduces chest pain.

14. Pulse is checked to assess:

Answer: Heart rate
Explanation: It reflects cardiac activity.

15. Tachycardia means pulse rate above:

Answer: 100 beats/min
Explanation: It indicates increased heart rate.

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🫁 SECTION 4: Respiratory System

16. Oxygen therapy is given to treat:

Answer: Hypoxia
Explanation: It increases oxygen supply to tissues.

17. Normal oxygen saturation level is:

Answer: 95–100%
Explanation: Lower values indicate oxygen deficiency.

18. Asthma is a disease of:

Answer: Airways
Explanation: It causes airway inflammation and narrowing.

19. COPD mainly affects:

Answer: Lungs
Explanation: It causes chronic breathing difficulty.

20. Cough helps in:

Answer: Clearing airways
Explanation: It removes secretions.

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🩸 SECTION 5: Gastrointestinal System

21. Normal bowel movement frequency is:

Answer: Once daily
Explanation: It varies but regularity is important.

22. Diarrhea causes:

Answer: Dehydration
Explanation: Loss of fluids and electrolytes occurs.

23. Peptic ulcer affects:

Answer: Stomach lining
Explanation: It causes pain and bleeding.

24. Nausea is controlled by:

Answer: Antiemetic drugs
Explanation: These prevent vomiting.

25. Liver functions include:

Answer: Detoxification
Explanation: Liver removes toxins from blood.

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🩺 SECTION 6: Urinary System

26. Normal urine output per day is:

Answer: 1500 ml
Explanation: Indicates normal kidney function.

27. Low urine output is called:

Answer: Oliguria
Explanation: It may indicate kidney failure.

28. UTI commonly presents with:

Answer: Burning urination
Explanation: Infection causes irritation.

29. Catheter care prevents:

Answer: Infection
Explanation: Proper hygiene reduces risk.

30. Kidneys regulate:

Answer: Fluid balance
Explanation: They maintain body homeostasis.

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🦴 SECTION 7: Musculoskeletal System

31. Bone fracture causes:

Answer: Pain and swelling
Explanation: Tissue damage leads to inflammation.

32. Osteoporosis is common in:

Answer: Elderly females
Explanation: Due to calcium loss.

33. Cast is used to:

Answer: Immobilize fracture
Explanation: It promotes healing.

34. Muscle cramps occur due to:

Answer: Electrolyte imbalance
Explanation: Especially low potassium or calcium.

35. Physiotherapy helps in:

Answer: Rehabilitation
Explanation: It restores movement.

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🧠 SECTION 8: Neurological System

36. Stroke occurs due to:

Answer: Blocked blood flow to brain
Explanation: It damages brain tissue.

37. Loss of consciousness indicates:

Answer: Neurological issue
Explanation: Brain function is affected.

38. Seizures are caused by:

Answer: Abnormal brain activity
Explanation: Electrical disturbances occur.

39. Glasgow Coma Scale assesses:

Answer: Level of consciousness
Explanation: It evaluates neurological status.

40. Head injury patients need:

Answer: Close observation
Explanation: For early complication detection.

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🧪 SECTION 9: Infection Control & Safety

41. Sterilization kills:

Answer: All microorganisms
Explanation: Including spores.

42. PPE stands for:

Answer: Personal Protective Equipment
Explanation: It protects healthcare workers.

43. Needle stick injury risk is:

Answer: Infection transmission
Explanation: Especially hepatitis and HIV.

44. Waste segregation uses:

Answer: Color-coded bins
Explanation: For safety.

45. Isolation prevents:

Answer: Spread of disease
Explanation: It protects others.

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💊 SECTION 10: Pharmacology Basics

46. Drug dosage depends on:

Answer: Age and weight
Explanation: Correct dosing prevents toxicity.

47. Oral drugs are absorbed in:

Answer: Gastrointestinal tract
Explanation: Mainly intestine.

48. Side effects should be:

Answer: Reported
Explanation: For patient safety.

49. Overdose causes:

Answer: Toxicity
Explanation: It can be life-threatening.

50. Medication errors must be:

Answer: Prevented
Explanation: By following rights of medication.

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📚 SECTION 11: Patient Care & Ethics

51. Patient privacy is a:

Answer: Legal right
Explanation: Must be respected.

52. Consent is taken before:

Answer: Procedures
Explanation: It is ethical practice.

53. Vital signs include:

Answer: BP, pulse, temperature
Explanation: They indicate health status.

54. Bed sores are prevented by:

Answer: Repositioning
Explanation: Reduces pressure.

55. Communication improves:

Answer: Patient trust
Explanation: It ensures cooperation.

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🚑 SECTION 12: Emergency Care & First Aid

56. The first step in emergency care is:

Answer: Ensure safety
Explanation: The nurse must ensure personal and patient safety before providing care.

57. Shock is defined as:

Answer: Inadequate tissue perfusion
Explanation: Shock occurs when organs do not receive enough blood and oxygen.

58. A common sign of shock is:

Answer: Cold, clammy skin
Explanation: Poor circulation causes skin changes.

59. First aid for bleeding includes:

Answer: Applying pressure
Explanation: Pressure helps stop bleeding and prevents shock.

60. Burns are first cooled with:

Answer: Running water
Explanation: Cooling reduces tissue damage and pain.

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🍬 SECTION 13: Endocrine System (Diabetes & Hormones)

61. Diabetes mellitus is characterized by:

Answer: High blood sugar
Explanation: It occurs due to lack or resistance to insulin.

62. Normal fasting blood glucose level is:

Answer: 70–110 mg/dL
Explanation: Values above this may indicate diabetes.

63. Insulin is administered by:

Answer: Subcutaneous route
Explanation: It provides slow and steady absorption.

64. A common symptom of hypoglycemia is:

Answer: Sweating
Explanation: Low blood sugar causes adrenergic symptoms.

65. Diabetic foot care helps prevent:

Answer: Infection and ulcers
Explanation: Poor circulation delays healing.

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🩹 SECTION 14: Wound Care & Dressing

66. A surgical wound is an example of:

Answer: Clean wound
Explanation: It is made under sterile conditions.

67. Purpose of wound dressing is to:

Answer: Prevent infection
Explanation: Dressing protects wound from microorganisms.

68. Signs of wound infection include:

Answer: Redness and discharge
Explanation: These indicate bacterial growth.

69. Sterile technique is used in:

Answer: Dressing wounds
Explanation: It prevents contamination.

70. Sutures are removed when:

Answer: Healing is adequate
Explanation: Premature removal can reopen wound.

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🧠 SECTION 15: Mental Health Basics

71. Mental health refers to:

Answer: Emotional and psychological well-being
Explanation: It affects thinking and behavior.

72. Anxiety causes:

Answer: Restlessness
Explanation: It is a common psychological response.

73. Depression is marked by:

Answer: Persistent sadness
Explanation: It affects daily functioning.

74. Therapeutic communication involves:

Answer: Active listening
Explanation: It helps patient express feelings.

75. Mental illness should be treated with:

Answer: Respect and care
Explanation: Stigma worsens patient condition.

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🧼 SECTION 16: Hygiene & Personal Care

76. Daily bathing helps in:

Answer: Maintaining hygiene
Explanation: It prevents infection and promotes comfort.

77. Oral care prevents:

Answer: Mouth infections
Explanation: Poor oral hygiene leads to disease.

78. Bed bath is given to:

Answer: Bedridden patients
Explanation: It maintains cleanliness.

79. Nail care prevents:

Answer: Infection
Explanation: Especially in diabetic patients.

80. Clean environment promotes:

Answer: Healing
Explanation: It reduces microorganism exposure.

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📝 SECTION 17: Documentation & Records

81. Nursing documentation should be:

Answer: Accurate
Explanation: Legal and clinical importance.

82. Patient records are:

Answer: Confidential
Explanation: Must not be shared without permission.

83. Incident reports are written when:

Answer: An error occurs
Explanation: For patient safety improvement.

84. Nursing notes help in:

Answer: Continuity of care
Explanation: They guide other healthcare workers.

85. Documentation should be done:

Answer: Immediately
Explanation: Delays cause errors.

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🏥 SECTION 18: Patient Discharge & Education

86. Discharge teaching includes:

Answer: Medication instructions
Explanation: Prevents complications at home.

87. Follow-up visits are important for:

Answer: Monitoring recovery
Explanation: Early detection of problems.

88. Patient education improves:

Answer: Treatment compliance
Explanation: Knowledge increases cooperation.

89. Written instructions help patients to:

Answer: Remember care steps
Explanation: Especially elderly patients.

90. Family involvement helps in:

Answer: Better recovery
Explanation: Support system improves outcomes.

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🚶 SECTION 19: Mobility & Rehabilitation

91. Early ambulation helps prevent:

Answer: Bed sores
Explanation: Movement improves circulation.

92. Walking aids include:

Answer: Walker
Explanation: Supports mobility.

93. Range of motion exercises improve:

Answer: Joint flexibility
Explanation: Prevents stiffness.

94. Immobilized patients are at risk of:

Answer: Thrombosis
Explanation: Reduced blood flow causes clots.

95. Proper body mechanics prevent:

Answer: Back injury
Explanation: Protects healthcare workers.

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🧯 SECTION 20: Safety & Hospital Environment

96. Fire safety symbol includes:

Answer: Exit sign
Explanation: Guides safe evacuation.

97. Wet floor signs prevent:

Answer: Falls
Explanation: Alerts patients and staff.

98. Electrical equipment should be:

Answer: Checked regularly
Explanation: Prevents accidents.

99. Patient identification is confirmed by:

Answer: Name band
Explanation: Prevents medical errors.

100. Safe nursing care focuses on:

Answer: Patient safety
Explanation: Safety is the priority in all nursing actions.

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🟢 FINAL CONCLUSION

These 100 most important MCQs with explanations are designed to help CNA Part-2 students understand Medical & Surgical Nursing concepts clearly. Regular practice with understanding will greatly improve exam performance and clinical confidence.For More CNA Notes Vist Nursing Notes

Author:
Dr. Abdul Rehman Yousaf
Medical Lecturer | Nursing, Pharmacy and Allied Health Educator | Expert Tutor

LHV 2nd Year Group B Guess Paper 2025–2026 | Maternal Health, Family Planning, Nutrition & Child Health Complete Notes

LHV 2nd Year Group B Guess Paper 2025-2026 | Complete Maternal Health, Family Planning, Nutrition & Child Health Notes

Prepared By: Dr. Abdul Rehman Yousaf

Senior Medical Tutor | Medical & Nursing Expert

📞 Contact: 0343-6253247

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Introduction

Dear Students,

These notes provide complete, simple, conceptual, and exam-oriented explanations for important topics of LHV 2nd Year Group B. The purpose of this guide is to help students understand key concepts quickly, memorize easily, and write high-scoring answers in exams.

All notes are written in student-friendly language, focusing only on important and scoring points, without unnecessary details. These notes are especially useful for annual exam preparation, quick revision, and last-night study.

This guide covers the most important subjects including:

• Maternal Health Practice

• Family Planning

• Food and Nutrition

• Child Health Practice

These topics are commonly asked in previous examinations and guess papers for 2025–2026.

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Solved Past Paper for CNA Part-1 Fundamentals of Nursing | Updated Notes + PDF Download

 

Certified Nursing Assistant (CNA) Part-1st FUNDAMENTAL OF NURSING (FON)Past Papper 2022 Solved

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Dear Students, these Notes Containing CNA.P1 All Solved MCQs with correct answers, easy, logical explanations, and also explained any important/difficult terms.

Dear Studentes for your ease if you want to downloadable file in pdf now you can download it Download option is also given and You can Ask for pdf or doc file also.

✅ SOLVED (Fill in the blanks Section)

1. Blood is a type of __________ tissue.

Answer: Connective

2. Somatostatin is secreted by ______ cells in pancreas.

Answer: Delta cells

3. Baroreceptors detect ______.

Answer: Pressure of blood

4. Hypoxia = insufficient ______ in the body.

Answer: Oxygen

5. Interchange of ideas & thoughts is called ______.

Answer: Communication

6. Blood travels from pulmonary arteries to the ______ atrium.

❌ Incorrect in paper

Correct Answer: Left atrium (after oxygenation in lungs)

7. Inflammation of gall bladder is:

Answer: Cholecystitis

8. Cold sponging temp is between ______.

Answer: 25°C to 27°C

9. Inflammation is first response to ______ or ______.

Answer: Infection or irritation

10. Immunity is achieved by ______.

Answer: Immunization or vaccination

MCQs Section (Chose One Correct Option)

1. First nurse theorist known for “Notes on Nursing”:

Answer: A : Florence Nightingale

2. When using standard precautions, nurse wears gloves during:

Answer: D : Providing oral hygiene

Explanation:

Risk of contact with saliva ➡️ gloves needed.

3. The nurse is preparing to take vital signs… best method to assess body temperature?

Answer: C : Oral

Explanation:

For an alert adult, oral temperature is most convenient and accurate.

4. The systematic and rational method of planning & providing individualized care is:

Answer: D : Nursing process

Explanation:

Nursing process = assessment ➡️ diagnosis ➡️ planning ➡️ implementation ➡️ evaluation.

5. Translate the message and sort out meaning by receiver is called:

Answer: A : Decoding

Explanation:

Decoding = understanding a received message.

6. Client had oral surgery… flushed skin & warm… best method to take temperature?

Answer: D : Rectal

Explanation:

Oral site cannot be used after oral surgery.

Rectal temperature is most accurate in such cases.

7. Which pulse site is used for infants and children up to 3 years?

Answer: D : Apical

Explanation:

Children under 3 have irregular heart rates ➡️ Apical pulse is most accurate.

8. Nurse finds pulse above normal. This is:

Answer: C : Tachycardia

Explanation:

Tachycardia = abnormally fast heart rate (>100 bpm).

9. Unconscious client needs frequent mouth care. Best position?

Answer: D : Side-lying

Explanation:

Side-lying prevents aspiration of secretions.

10. A state of wellbeing; engaging attitudes & behavior =

Answer: A : Wellness

Explanation:

Wellness = active process of achieving good health.

11. Communication which promotes understanding and helps establish constructive relationship is:

Answer: C : Therapeutic communication

Explanation:

Therapeutic communication builds trust between nurse & patient.

ons:

12. The World Health Organization was established in…

Correct Answer: 1948

Explanation:

The World Health Organization (WHO) was officially established on 7 April 1948, which is now celebrated every year as World Health Day. Although discussions and planning began earlier (in 1946 when its constitution was drafted and signed), the organization formally came into existence in 1948.

13. The nurse administers cleansing enema. The common position for this procedure is:

Answer: C Sims' left lateral

Explanation:

Sims' left lateral position allows the fluid to flow easily into the sigmoid colon through gravity, making enema administration safe and effective.

14. Back care is best described as:

Answer: A : Caring for the back by means of massage

Explanation:

Back care usually means massaging & cleaning the back to improve circulation and prevent bed sores.

15. ______ refers to the preparation of the bed with a new set of linens:

Answer: B : Bed making

Explanation:

Bed making = replacing old linen with clean linen for comfort, hygiene, and infection control.

16. Which is the largest organ in the body and serves a variety of important functions?

Answer: B : Skin

Explanation:

Skin is the largest organ. It protects, regulates temperature, and prevents infection.

17. In which phase of the nursing process is the problem identified?

Answer: A : Diagnosis

Explanation:

Nursing diagnosis = identifying patient problems based on assessment data.

18. The nursing diagnosis is a client problem that is present at the time of nursing:

Answer: D : Evaluation ❌ (Incorrect in the paper; correct is Assessment)

Correct Answer: A : Assessment

Explanation:

Assessment = gathering data ➡️ identifying current problems.

19. Which of the following is sign of impending clinical death?

Answer: A : Rapid pulse

Explanation:

As death nears ➡️ pulse becomes rapid, weak & irregular due to failing heart.

20. The involuntary spasm of outer one-third of vaginal muscle:

Answer: D : Vaginismus

Explanation:

Vaginismus = sudden involuntary tightness of vaginal muscles ➡️ painful for insertion.

21. Which of the following is clear diet?

Answer: B : Vegetable juice

Explanation:

Clear liquid diet = liquids you can see through (e.g., vegetable broth, apple juice).

Yogurt/ice cream are NOT clear.

22. The shift changes… What initial statement is most appropriate?

Answer: A : I am very sorry for your loss. May I stay with you?

Explanation:

When a family is grieving, the priority is empathy and presence, not silence or interview.

23. In which position client lies on one side with hip/knee flexed and arm in front?

Answer: C : Lateral position

Explanation:

Lateral = side-lying with knees slightly bent.

24. Most important purpose of handwashing?

Answer: B : To prevent transfer of microorganisms

Explanation:

Hand washing mainly prevents infection by removing microbes.

25. Snellen chart tests:

Answer: D : Visual acuity

Explanation:

Snellen chart = measures how clearly a person can see at distance (20/20 vision).

26. Basic health unit covers area of:

Answer: C : 10-15 sq miles, 500010,000 population

(closest correct option)

27. System referring patient from primary to secondary health unit is known as:

Answer: A : Referral

Explanation:

Referral = shifting patient to higher-level facility.

28. The fundamental aim of primary health care is to provide:

Answer: D : All of these

Explanation:

Primary health care aims for affordable services, adequate food, safe water, etc.

29. After community assessment, team can enter the:

Answer: C : Community assessment wheel

(But correct conceptually = Health planning cycle)

Given options, BEST is:

Answer: A : Health planning system

30. Which criteria is correct for CHW (Community Health Worker)?

Answer: D : All of these

Explanation:

A CHW should be respected, helpful, motivated, confident, willing to work.

31. Daily birth records are registered in:

Answer: D : Union corporation registration office

32. THO stands for:

Answer: D : Town health officer

33. Best source to collect information/data about any person:

Answer: D : Community survey

34. Demography gathers data about:

Answer: D : All of these

(age, family size, income, birth rate, death rate, housing)

35. Frequency of visit during first 28 weeks of pregnancy:

Answer: B : Once every four weeks

36. For healthy motherhood, women should:

Answer: D : All of these

37. For home delivery, most important attendant:

Answer: C : Midwife

38. Natal services provided to mothers in:

Answer: D : Clinic

(But also hospital; closest = A+B, but option A+B is given)

Correct = A : A + B (Home + Hospital)

Given paper context: A + B

39. Necessary equipment for MCH center:

Answer: D : All of these

40. MCH center cares for the health of:

Answer: A : A + B (Mother + Child)

41. After surgery, nurse should prioritize assessing:

Answer: A : Pain intensity

Explanation:

Pain intensity helps decide medication needs.

42. Best position for respiratory distress?

Answer: B : Semi-Fowler's

Explanation:

Semi-Fowler’s (3045° elevation) improves lung expansion.

43. Client’s right to be treated equally is defended by:

Answer: C : Client advocate

Explanation:

Advocate = protects client’s rights.

44. Trendelenburg position prevents:

Answer: A : Shock

Explanation:

Feet elevated ➡️ increases blood flow to vital organs.

45. Infusion in right arm ➡️ BP should be taken from:

Answer: B : Left arm

Explanation:

Never take BP on the arm with IV infusion.

46. Public health & prevention roles promoted by:

Answer: B : Lillian Wald

Explanation:

Founder of public health nursing.

47. BP sounds heard with stethoscope are called:

Answer: D : Korotkoff sounds

Explanation:

Korotkoff sounds = sounds heard during BP measurement.

48. Definition of nursing ("human responses to health") given by:

Answer: A : ANA (American Nurses Association)

49. Normal respiratory rhythm & depth =

Answer: A : Eupnea

Explanation:

Eupnea = normal breathing.

Apnea = no breathing

Tachypnea = fast breathing

Bradypnea = slow breathing

50. It is the process of helping the client to recognise and cope with psychological or social problems for personal growth.

Correct Answer: B. Counselling

Explanation:

Counselling is a professional process in which a trained person helps a client understand, recognise, and deal with psychological, emotional, or social problems. It also supports personal growth and better decision-making.

Communication is a part of counselling, but counselling is the complete structured process that fits the definition.

⭐ CNA Part-I – Fundamentals of Nursing (Solved Past Papper NEBP)

(Solved Subjective Questions Prepared by Dr.Abdul Rehman Yousaf effective, explanatory,scoring)

Q1 Define the following terms

1. Nursing Process

Definition:

Nursing process is a systematic, organized and scientific method used by nurses to provide quality and individualized patient care. It helps the nurse to identify patient needs, plan appropriate interventions and evaluate outcomes.

Steps (ADPIE):

1. Assessment: Collecting patient data

2. Diagnosis: Identifying patient problems

3. Planning: Setting goals and selecting interventions

4. Implementation: Carrying out the care plan

5. Evaluation: Checking if goals were achieved

Easy Line:

➡️ “A step-by-step method to find patient problems and give proper care.”

2. Communication

Definition:

Communication is the process of exchanging information, ideas, emotions and messages between two or more people through verbal, non-verbal and written methods. It is essential for building trust between nurse and patient.

Types:

Verbal (spoken words)

Non-verbal (facial expressions, gestures)

Written (reports, charts)

3. Fainting

Definition:

Fainting (syncope) is a brief, sudden and temporary loss of consciousness caused by decreased blood supply to the brain. The person usually recovers quickly when lying flat.

Causes:

Dehydration

Low blood pressure

Fatigue

Pain or emotional stress

4. Pressure Ulcers

Definition:

Pressure ulcers are localized injuries to the skin and underlying tissues caused by prolonged pressure, especially over bony areas like heels, hips, elbows and spine.

Risk Factors: Immobility, moisture, friction, poor nutrition.

5. Ethics

Definition:

Ethics are moral values and principles that guide nurses in deciding what is right and wrong. They ensure patient safety, dignity, honesty and professional behavior.

Purpose:

To protect patient rights and promote quality care.

Q2(A) Define terms related to loss and grieving and identify manifestations of grief

1. Loss

Loss is the state of being deprived of something valuable, such as a person, health, limb, job or relationship.

2. Grief

Grief is the emotional reaction to loss, expressed through sadness, crying or loneliness.

3. Bereavement

Bereavement is the period of sorrow and adjustment following the death of a loved one.

4. Mourning

Mourning is the external expression of grief, such as crying, praying, or wearing specific clothes.

Common Manifestations of Grief(Write ANY 5)

1. Crying and sadness

2. Anger or guilt

3. Loss of appetite

4. Disturbed sleep

5. Fatigue or weakness

6. Social withdrawal

7. Difficulty concentrating

8. Shock or denial

Q2(B) Common manifestations of altered respiration and cardiovascular function

Altered Respiration (Breathing Issues)

Key manifestations:

1. Dyspnea: Difficulty breathing

2. Tachypnea: Rapid breathing

3. Bradypnea: Slow breathing

4. Cyanosis: Blue lips/nails due to low oxygen

5. Noisy breathing: Wheezing or bubbling

6. Use of accessory muscles: Extra effort to breathe

Altered Cardiovascular Function

Common manifestations:

1. Tachycardia: Fast heart rate

2. Bradycardia: Slow heart rate

3. Chest pain

4. Edema: Swelling of feet or hands

5. Pale, cold, clammy skin

6. Abnormal blood pressure

7. Dizziness or fainting

Q3(A) Nursing development in Pakistan

1. Nursing began in Pakistan after 1947 with a few basic training schools.

2. The Pakistan Nursing Council (PNC) was established in 1948 to register nurses and regulate education.

3. Over time, many public and private nursing schools opened across the country.

4. Nursing education moved from diploma programs to BScN and post-RN programs to improve skills.

5. Specialized roles developed such as midwives, community health nurses, ICU nurses, and nurse instructors.

6. Government introduced scholarships, training programs, career pathways and overseas opportunities.

7. International organizations like WHO also supported nursing standards and training.

One-line summary:

➡️ Nursing in Pakistan has progressed from basic training to modern professional education with strong support from PNC.

Q3(B) Signs and symptoms of pressure ulcers

(Write ANY 6)

1. Persistent redness

2. Pain or tenderness

3. Blister formation

4. Skin cracking or open wound

5. Dark or purplish discoloration

6. Foul-smelling discharge

7. Swelling or warmth

8. Pus formation

Q4(A) Define code of ethics and enlist functions and elements

Definition Code of Ethics

A code of ethics is a formal set of moral principles and professional standards that guide nurses in making safe, fair and responsible decisions in patient care.

Functions of Code of Ethics

1. Protects patient rights and dignity

2. Guides nurses in ethical decision-making

3. Promotes safe and quality nursing care

4. Maintains professionalism

5. Prevents harm and promotes good

Elements of Ethical Code

1. Respect for patient

2. Confidentiality

3. Honesty and truthfulness

4. Responsibility and accountability

5. Justice and fairness

6. Beneficence (doing good)

7. Non-maleficence (avoiding harm)

Q4(B) Define admission and discuss nurse’s responsibilities in admission, transfer and discharge

Definition :Admission is the process of receiving a patient into the hospital for examination, diagnosis, treatment and nursing care.

Nurse’s Responsibilities

During Admission

1. Welcome patient and family

2. Confirm identity and admission details

3. Complete documentation

4. Take vital signs and initial assessment

5. Orient patient to ward, bed, and facilities

6. Check and record personal belongings

7. Provide emotional support

During Transfer

1. Inform patient and receiving department

2. Prepare patient file and reports

3. Ensure safe transportation

4. Accompany patient if needed

5. Give proper handover to next nurse

During Discharge

1. Give discharge instructions

2. Educate about medicines, diet and rest

3. Complete discharge forms

4. Return patient’s belongings

5. Guide about follow-up visits

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CNA-Part FON (Fundamentals of Nursing) – Past Paper Guess 2025-2026 By Dr.Abdul Rehman Yousaf

CNA-Part | Fundamentals of Nursing (FON) Past Paper Guess 2025 – Punjab Nursing Examination Board (PNEB)

High-Yield MCQs, Short Questions, Long Questions & Practical Exam Guess

Preparing for the CNA-Part Exam (Fundamentals of Nursing – FON) under the Punjab Nursing Examination Board (PNEB) can feel overwhelming. To make your preparation smarter and faster, here is a 100% exam-focused, high-yield Past Paper Guess for 2025 based on repeated questions, trend analysis, and important concepts.

This post includes:

• ✔ Most Important MCQs (Frequently Asked)
• ✔ Short Questions Guess
• ✔ Long Questions Guess
• ✔ Practical/Procedure-Based Guess
• ✔ SEO keywords (for Google ranking)

This guide is perfect for CNA-Part students, LHV, Nursing Assistants, and all nursing exam candidates.

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🌟 CNA-Part FON (Fundamentals of Nursing) – Past Paper Guess 2025

Below are the most expected questions according to past PNEB board patterns.

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⭐ 1. Very Important MCQs (Repeated Every Year)

These MCQs have 90% chances to appear in CNA-Part exams.

1. Founder of modern nursing
2. First step of the nursing process
3. Meaning of nosocomial infection
4. Normal BP, temperature, pulse, respiration
5. Recommended handwashing time
6. Difference between medical and surgical asepsis
7. Normal urine output per hour
8. Stages of pressure ulcers (bed sores)
9. Uses of Fowler’s and Sims position
10. Indications for cold vs hot applications
11. Signs and symptoms of hypoxia
12. Types of bandages
13. Oxygen therapy flow rate
14. Differences: droplet vs contact vs airborne precautions
15. Contraindications of NG tube insertion
16. CPR compression-to-breath ratio (30:2)
17. Sterilization vs disinfection
18. Subjective vs objective data
19. Importance of nursing documentation
20. Fire safety principles: RACE & PASS
21. Major pulse sites (radial, carotid, apical)
22. Methods of feeding (enteral and parenteral)
23. Types of incontinence
24. Catheter sizes for male and female patients
25. Phases of wound healing
26. Characteristics of normal urine
27. Nursing care for diarrhea vs constipation
28. Types of enemas
29. 5 classical signs of infection
30. Duties and responsibilities of a professional nurse

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⭐ 2. Short Questions Guess (Highly Expected)

These topics frequently appear as 2–5 marks questions.

📌 Most Important Short Questions for 2025

• Define Nursing
• Principles of handwashing
• Methods of sterilization
• Types of hospital beds (open, closed, postoperative)
• Prevention of pressure sores
• Types of admission
• Qualities of a good professional nurse
• Signs of dehydration
• Procedure of taking oral temperature
• Contraindications of oral temperature
• Types of isolation
• Nursing care of a fever patient
• Foot care for diabetic patients
• Purpose of urinalysis
• Methods to maintain patient privacy
• Hazards of oxygen therapy
• Types of consent
• Functions of skin
• Care of unconscious patient
• Forms of nursing charting

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⭐ 3. Long Questions Guess (Most Repeated in Board Exams)

Prepare these 8 long questions completely—they cover most chapters.

📘 Most Expected Long Questions

1. Nursing Process: assessment, diagnosis, planning, implementation, evaluation
2. Asepsis & Infection Control: medical vs surgical asepsis + sterilization
3. Admission & Discharge: steps, importance, nursing responsibilities
4. Bed Making: types of bed, procedure, necessary equipment
5. Vital Signs: meaning, normal ranges, complete procedure
6. Nutrition in Nursing: types of diet, factors affecting nutrition
7. First Aid & Emergency Care: ABC approach, CPR, bleeding management
8. Care of the Dying Patient: last offices, emotional and psychological support

Second Priority Long Questions

• Elimination needs (urine & bowel care)
• Pain management
• Wound care and dressing
• Oxygen therapy & safety measures

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⭐ 4. Practical / Procedure-Based Guess (Skills Exam)

PNEB often includes sequence-based or scenario-based practical questions.

🎯 Most Expected Practical Topics

• WHO 7-step handwashing
• Measuring blood pressure
• Checking pulse and respiration
• NG tube insertion steps
• Catheter care and catheterization
• Complete bed bath
• Hot & cold applications
• Enema administration
• Basic bandaging techniques
• Taking oral/axillary/rectal temperature

Explanation of Above Practical Topics From Fundamentals of Nursing past papers

Below are clear, safe, educational explanations for all the procedures you listed. These are general nursing-school level overviews, not step-by-step clinical instructions for real patient care and Accurate to fit in Punjab Nursing Examination Board FON guess.

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✅ WHO 7-Step Handwashing Technique (Explanation)

The WHO technique ensures that all surfaces of the hands are cleaned to reduce infection transmission.

1. Palm to palm – Removes germs from the main hand surfaces.

2. Right palm over left dorsum & vice versa – Cleans back of hands.

3. Palm to palm with fingers interlaced – Cleans spaces between fingers.

4. Back of fingers to opposing palms – Removes dirt from knuckles.

5. Rotational rubbing of thumbs – Thumbs carry many germs.

6. Rotational rubbing on palms (fingertips) – Cleans under nails and tips.

7. Rinse and dry – Removes remaining microbes and prevents re-contamination.

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✅ Measuring Blood Pressure (Purpose & Explanation)

Blood pressure measures the force of blood against artery walls. It tells us about heart function and circulatory status.

• Systolic: pressure during heart contraction.

• Diastolic: pressure when the heart relaxes.

• A sphygmomanometer and stethoscope are typically used.

• Proper cuff size and arm positioning ensure an accurate reading.

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✅ Checking Pulse & Respiration (Explanation)

Pulse:

Pulse indicates heart rate, rhythm, and strength. Common sites: radial, carotid, apical.

• Rate: beats per minute

• Rhythm: regular/irregular

• Volume: strong/weak/thready

Respiration:

Respiratory assessment shows how effectively a patient breathes.

• Rate: breaths per minute

• Depth: shallow/deep

• Rhythm: regular/irregular

• Type: thoracic/abdominal breathing

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✅ NG Tube Insertion (Nasogastric Tube) – General Explanation Only

An NG tube is inserted through the nose → pharynx → esophagus → stomach.

Purpose: Feeding, medication administration, gastric decompression.

General overview (non-procedural):

• Patient is positioned upright.

• Tube is gently advanced while the patient swallows.

• Placement is checked using safe methods (pH of aspirate, clinical signs—NOT by blind techniques).

• Tube is secured to the nose.

Note: Actual insertion requires trained staff because of risks such as aspiration or misplacement.

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✅ Catheter Care & Catheterization (Explanation)

Catheterization:

Insertion of a sterile tube into the bladder to:

• drain urine

• monitor output

• collect sterile specimens

Uses sterile technique to prevent infection.

Catheter Care:

To prevent UTIs (urinary tract infections):

• Maintain closed drainage system.

• Keep catheter tubing below bladder level.

• Regular perineal cleansing (NOT aggressive cleaning).

• Empty bag without touching outlet to surfaces.

• Monitor for infection signs.

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✅ Complete Bed Bath (Explanation)

A complete bed bath is given to patients unable to bathe themselves.
Purposes:

• Maintain hygiene

• Improve comfort

• Increase circulation

• Prevent infections and skin breakdown

Bathing is done from clean to less clean areas, ensuring privacy, warmth, and safety.

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✅ Hot & Cold Applications (Explanation)

Hot Applications:

Purpose:

• Increase blood flow

• Relieve muscle spasm

• Reduce stiffness

• Promote healing

Examples: hot packs, warm compresses, hot water bottles.

Cold Applications:

Purpose:

• Reduce swelling

• Reduce pain

• Slow bleeding

• Decrease inflammation

Examples: ice packs, cold compresses.

Both require checking skin to prevent burns or frostbite.

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✅ Enema Administration (Explanation)

An enema introduces fluid into the rectum to:

• relieve constipation

• prepare for diagnostic tests

• administer medication

Concept:
Fluid stimulates peristalsis, softens stool, and promotes bowel evacuation.
Correct positioning (usually left lateral) helps fluid flow through the colon more effectively.

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✅ Basic Bandaging Techniques (Explanation)

Bandaging provides support, protection, immobilization, and absorption.

Common techniques:

• Circular bandage: anchors bandage on small areas.

• Spiral bandage: uniform covering for cylindrical parts.

• Figure-of-eight: for joints (ankle, elbow).

• Triangular bandage: for slings or large dressings.

Purpose: maintain dressing, reduce swelling, support injury.

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✅ Taking Temperature (Oral / Axillary / Rectal) – Explanation

Oral Temperature

• Taken under the tongue.

• Convenient and accurate when patient can cooperate.

Axillary Temperature

• Taken in the armpit.

• Less accurate; used for infants or patients who cannot hold thermometer in mouth.

Rectal Temperature

• Inserted in rectum.

• Most accurate core temperature.

• Usually avoided unless required, especially in cardiac or immunocompromised patients.

Dr.Abdul Rehman Yousaf 03436253247

Dr.Abdul Rehman Yousaf 03436253247

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❓ Frequently Asked Questions (FAQ)

1. Is this FON guess valid for Punjab Nursing Examination Board?

Yes, it is prepared according to official PNEB exam trends and past papers.

2. Does this include repeated questions?

Yes, most questions are taken from frequently repeated past papers.

3. Can this guess be used for LHV and CNA-Part exams?

Absolutely. It covers the complete Fundamentals of Nursing syllabus for all allied programs.

4. Will you provide the MCQs with answers?

Yes just comment or request: “Give me 100 MCQs with answers.”

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📢 Want More?

✅ Chapter-wise Past Paper Guess
✅ 100+ Solved MCQs
✅ Solved Short & Long Questions
✅ Download PDF Notes
✅ Diagrams & Flowcharts
✅ 100+ Solved MCQs
✅ Solved Short & Long Questions
✅ Download PDF Notes
✅ Diagrams & Flowcharts

Contact Us:03436253247 WhatsApp and Call

A 30-MCQ Online Test for CNA-Part (FON – Fundamentals of Nursing) based directly on the Past Paper Guess I provided.

📝 FON – Online Test (30 MCQs)-Instructions: Choose the correct option. Each MCQ = 1 mark.

Answers Honestly (No cheating 😊).

🔵 MCQs TEST

1. Founder of modern nursing is:

A. Clara Barton

B. Florence Nightingale

C. Linda Richards

D. Mary Seacole

2. First step of nursing process is:

A. Planning

B. Implementation

C. Assessment

D. Evaluation

3. Nosocomial infection means infection acquired in:

A. Community

B. Home

C. Hospital

D. Travel

4. Minimum recommended time for handwashing is:

A. 10 seconds

B. 20 seconds

C. 30 seconds

D. 60 seconds

5. Normal adult respiratory rate is:

A. 8–10/min

B. 10–14/min

C. 12–20/min

D. 20–30/min

6. Medical asepsis means:

A. Sterile techniques

B. Clean techniques

C. Disinfection only

D. Isolation only

7. Sterilization destroys:

A. Only bacteria

B. Only viruses

C. All microorganisms including spores

D. Fungi only

8. Fowler’s position is used for:

A. Unconscious patient

B. Difficulty in breathing

C. Lower limb fractures

D. CPR

9. Best method to confirm NG tube placement:

A. Air insufflation. B. Asking patient

C. X-ray. D. Auscultation

10. Normal urine output per hour is:

A. 5–10 mL

B. 20–25 mL

C. 30–50 mL

D. 60–80 mL

11. CPR compression-to-breath ratio in adults:

A. 15:2. B. 20:2

C. 30:2. D. 10:1

12. First action in RACE during fire:

A. Confine

B. Rescue

C. Alarm

D. Extinguish

13. Objective data means:

A. Patient feelings

B. Measurable signs

C. Opinions

D. Symptoms only

14. Pressure sore most commonly develops on:

A. Neck

B. Sacrum

C. Finger tips

D. Forearm

15. Normal blood pressure (systolic) is:

A. 80–100 mmHg

B. 100–120 mmHg

C. 120–150 mmHg

D. 150–180 mmHg

16. Best way to prevent infection is:

A. Wearing gloves

B. Masks

C. Handwashing

D. Disinfecting floor

17. Signs of hypoxia include:

A. Red skin

B. Bluish discoloration

C. High fever

D. Itching

18. Oral temperature is contraindicated in:

A. Infant

B. Adult

C. Coma patient

D. Postoperative patient

19. Stage 1 pressure sore involves:

A. Open ulcer

B. Non-blanchable redness

C. Deep tissue loss

D. Necrosis

20. Pulse commonly checked at:

A. Temporal artery

B. Radial artery

C. Aorta

D. Subclavian

21. Droplet precautions are required for:

A. TB

B. Chickenpox

C. Measles

D. Influenza

22. Sterile technique is used in:

A. Bed bath

B. Oral feeding

C. Dressing of wounds

D. Handwashing

23. Main purpose of documentation is:

A. Decoration

B. Patient safety and communication

C. Legal punishment

D. Show workload

24. First step in bleeding control:

A. Apply tourniquet

B. Direct pressure

C. Give IV fluids

D. Elevate limb

25. NG tube insertion is contraindicated in:

A. Unconscious patients

B. Stroke

C. Nasal fracture

D. Weak patient

26. Isolation for airborne diseases requires:

A. Surgical mask

B. N95 mask

C. Gloves only

D. Apron only

27. Which is subjective data?

A. BP 120/80

B. Pulse 88

C. Pain in abdomen

D. Temperature 98°F

28. Enema is given through:

A. Mouth

B. Nose

C. Rectum

D. IV line

29. Hot application is used for:

A. Acute swelling

B. Reduce pain & stiffness

C. Stop bleeding

D. Reduce fever

30. Wound healing has how many stages?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5

Answers of 30 MCQs, ✔ Correct answers marked
✔ Short, clear Explanations (easy to memorize)
Perfect for exam revision.

✅ FON – 30 MCQs with Answers + Explanations

1. Founder of modern nursing is:

✔ Correct: B. Florence Nightingale

Explanation: She introduced modern nursing practices during Crimean War.

2. First step of nursing process is:

✔ Correct: C. Assessment

Explanation: Nursing process always starts with collecting data (assessment).

3. Nosocomial infection means infection acquired in:

✔ Correct: C. Hospital

Explanation: Nosocomial = hospital-acquired.

4. Minimum recommended time for handwashing:

✔ Correct: B. 20 seconds

Explanation: WHO recommends minimum 20 seconds for effective handwashing.

5. Normal adult respiratory rate:

✔ Correct: C. 12–20/min

Explanation: This is the standard adult range.

6. Medical asepsis means:

✔ Correct: B. Clean techniques

Explanation: Medical asepsis reduces microorganisms, not sterile.

7. Sterilization destroys:

✔ Correct: C. All microorganisms including spores

Explanation: Only sterilization kills spores completely.

8. Fowler’s position is used for:

✔ Correct: B. Difficulty in breathing

Explanation: Sitting position improves lung expansion.

9. Best method to confirm NG tube placement:

✔ Correct: C. X-ray

Explanation: X-ray is the gold standard for safety.

10. Normal urine output per hour:

✔ Correct: C. 30–50 mL

Explanation: Less than 30 mL/hr indicates kidney issues.

11. CPR compression-to-breath ratio in adults:

✔ Correct: C. 30:2

Explanation: Standard CPR ratio for adults (single rescuer).

12. First action in RACE during fire:

✔ Correct: B. Rescue

Explanation: Rescue patients from danger first.

R . Rescue

A .Alarm

C .Confine

E . Extinguish

13. Objective data means:

✔ Correct: B. Measurable signs

Explanation: Things the nurse can measure/observe.

14. Pressure sore most commonly develops on:

✔ Correct: B. Sacrum

Explanation: Sacrum is a major pressure point in bedridden patients.

15. Normal blood pressure (systolic):

✔ Correct: B. 100–120 mmHg

Explanation: Normal systolic range.

16. Best way to prevent infection:

✔ Correct: C. Handwashing

Explanation: Most effective and basic infection control method.

17. Signs of hypoxia include:

✔ Correct: B. Bluish discoloration

Explanation: Cyanosis appears due to low oxygen.

18. Oral temperature is contraindicated in:

✔ Correct: A. Infant

Explanation: Infants bite thermometer + risk of injury.

Also contraindicated in unconscious or mouth surgery patients.

19. Stage 1 pressure sore involves:

✔ Correct: B. Non-blanchable redness

Explanation: Skin is intact but red and does not blanch.

20. Pulse commonly checked at:

✔ Correct: B. Radial artery

Explanation: Easiest and most common site for adults.

21. Droplet precautions are required for:

✔ Correct: D. Influenza

Explanation: Influenza spreads via large droplets.

22. Sterile technique is used in:

✔ Correct: C. Dressing of wounds

Explanation: Wound dressing requires sterile field to avoid infection.

23. Main purpose of documentation:

✔ Correct: B. Patient safety and communication

Explanation: Ensures continuity of care + legal record.

24. First step in bleeding control:

✔ Correct: B. Direct pressure

Explanation: Direct pressure immediately reduces bleeding.

25. NG tube insertion is contraindicated in:

✔ Correct: C. Nasal fracture

Explanation: Tube may worsen injury or enter wrong path.

26. Isolation for airborne diseases requires:

✔ Correct: B. N95 mask

Explanation: Airborne pathogens (TB, measles) need N95 respirator.

27. Which is subjective data?

✔ Correct: C. Pain in abdomen

Explanation: Subjective = patient’s feelings that cannot be measured.

28. Enema is given through:

✔ Correct: C. Rectum

Explanation: Enema introduces fluid via rectum to stimulate bowel movement.

29. Hot application is used for:

✔ Correct: B. Reduce pain & stiffness

Explanation: Heat relaxes muscles and improves blood flow.

30. Wound healing has how many stages?

✔ Correct: C. 4

Explanation:

1. Hemostasis 2. Inflammation 3. Proliferation. 4. Maturation

 Common Diseases – Study Blog by Dr. Abdul Rehman Yousaf

1. Diabetes Mellitus (Sugar)

🔹 Overview (English)

Diabetes Mellitus, commonly known as diabetes or “sugar disease”, is one of the most widespread chronic illnesses in the world. It occurs when the body cannot properly use or produce enough insulin, a hormone that regulates blood sugar (glucose) levels. If untreated, high blood sugar can damage vital organs such as the heart, kidneys, eyes, and nerves.

🔹 Overview (Urdu)

Diabetes Mellitus, jise aam zuban me “Sugar ki bemari” kaha jata hai, duniya ki sabse zyada paai jane wali chronic diseases me se ek hai. Ye tab hoti hai jab body theek tarah se insulin (wo hormone jo blood sugar ko control karta hai) ko produce nahi karti ya use sahi istemal nahi kar pati. Agar isay control na kiya jaye to high sugar level se dil, gurde, aankhen aur nerves kharab ho sakti hain.

🔹 Causes & Risk Factors (English)

Family history of diabetes

Obesity and sedentary lifestyle

Poor diet (high sugar, processed foods)

Stress and hormonal imbalances

Age over 40 (though now common in younger people too)

🔹Wajuhat aur Risk Factors (Urdu)

1.Agar family me pehle se diabetes hai.. 2.Zyada motapa aur kam physical activity

3.Ghalat diet (meetha aur junk food) 4.Stress aur hormonal problems

40 saal se upar umar (ab to young logon me bhi ziada ho rahi hai)

🔹 Symptoms (English)

Excessive thirst and frequent urination

Extreme fatigue

Unexplained weight loss

Blurred vision

Slow wound healing

Tingling or numbness in hands and feet

🔹 Alamat (Urdu)

Bohat zyada pyaas lagna aur baar baar washroom jana

Thakan ka izafa

Wazan ghair-wazeh tor par kam hona

Nazar dhundhli ho jana

Zakham ka dair tak theek na hona

Haathon aur paon me sunpan ya jhunjhunahat

🔹 Diagnosis (English)

Doctors usually recommend:

Fasting Blood Sugar Test (FBS)

HbA1c Test (3-month sugar average)

Oral Glucose Tolerance Test (OGTT)

🔹 Tashkhees ( Urdu)

Doctors aam tor par ye tests karte hain:

Fasting Blood Sugar Test

HbA1c Test (3 mahine ki sugar ki average)

Oral Glucose Tolerance Test

🔹 Treatment & Management (English)

Lifestyle modification: healthy diet, regular exercise

Oral medications (like Metformin)

Insulin injections for Type 1 or advanced Type 2 diabetes

Regular monitoring of blood sugar

Avoiding smoking and alcohol

🔹 Ilaj aur Control (In Urdu)

Lifestyle me tabdeeli: sehatmand khana aur exercise

Diabetes ki dawaiyan (Metformin waghera)

Type 1 ya ziada barh gayi Type 2 diabetes me insulin injections

Rozana sugar check karna

Smoking aur sharab se parhez

🔹 Prevention (English)

Maintain healthy weight

Exercise at least 30 minutes daily

Eat a balanced diet (low sugar, high fiber)

Regular medical checkups

🔹 Bachao (In Urdu)

Wazan normal rakhna

Rozana 30 minutes exercise karna

Sehatmand ghiza (kam meetha, ziada fiber)

Regular doctor checkup

🔹 FAQs (English +Urdu)

Q: Can diabetes be completely cured?

A: No, diabetes cannot be permanently cured, but it can be controlled with proper treatment and lifestyle changes.

 Urdu: Nahi, diabetes ka poora ilaj nahi hai, magar sahi ilaaj aur lifestyle se isay control kiya ja sakta hai.

Q: What is the normal fasting blood sugar level?

A: Usually between 70–99 mg/dL.

Urdu: Normal fasting sugar aam tor par 70–99 mg/dL hoti hai.

CNA Solved Past Papers Pakistan Nursing Council 2025-2026 By.Dr.Abdul Rehman Yousaf

Anatomy And Physiology 

Certified Nursing Assistant (CNA)

Past Solved Paper (2024-2025)

By.Profesor Dr.Abdul Rehman Yousaf 

Nursing Examination Board (NEBP) PUNJAB
NURSING COUNCIL PAKISTAN (PNC)

Dear Students, I go through each question one by one in easy language so you can understand them clearly and remember them for your exam. Writing can sometimes be challenging, so I want to help make it easier for you. I’ll provide you with simple points that you can easily write down on your answer sheet. You're not alone in this, and I'm here to support you!

Q.1 Structure of the Heart and Circulation (10 marks)

Structure of the Heart

The heart is a muscular organ about the size of your fist, located in the middle of the chest.

Four chambers:

1. Right Atrium – receives deoxygenated blood from the body.

2. Right Ventricle – pumps this blood to the lungs.

3. Left Atrium – receives oxygen-rich blood from the lungs.

4. Left Ventricle – pumps this blood to the whole body.

Valves  👇

👉(work like doors to prevent backflow)

1.Tricuspid Valve (right side)
2.Pulmonary Valve
3.Mitral/Bicuspid Valve (left side)
4.Aortic Valve

Blood vessels connected:

Arteries: ...(carry blood away from the heart (Aorta, Pulmonary artery)

Veins: ...  bring blood back to the heart (Superior/Inferior vena cava, Pulmonary veins)

Wall layers:

1. Epicardium (outer layer)

2. Myocardium (muscle)

3. Endocardium (inner lining)

By.Profesor Dr.Abdul Rehman Yousaf 

Circulation of Blood

Two types:

1. Pulmonary circulation – Right side of heart → Lungs → Left side of heart (for oxygenation of blood)

2. Systemic circulation – Left side of heart → Whole body → Right side of heart (to deliver oxygen and nutrients)

Q.2 Structure and Function of the Nephron in the Kidney (10 marks)

Structure

The nephron is the basic unit of the kidney that filters blood and makes urine.

Parts:

1. Bowman’s capsule – a cup-shaped structure that collects filtered fluid.

2. Glomerulus – a tiny capillary network inside Bowman’s capsule where filtration happens.

3. Proximal Convoluted Tubule (PCT) – reabsorbs useful substances like glucose, amino acids, and water.

4. Loop of Henle – concentrates the urine by reabsorbing water and salts.

5. Distal Convoluted Tubule (DCT) – fine-tunes salt and water balance.

6. Collecting duct – collects urine from many nephrons and sends it to the bladder.

Function

📝.Filters waste products (like urea) from the blood.

📝.Reabsorbs useful substances.

📝.Maintains water, salt, and pH balance.

Produces urine.

Q.3 How the Autonomic Nervous System (ANS) Regulates Heart Rate (10 marks)

Autonomic Nervous System

Works automatically (no conscious control).

Two main parts:

1. Sympathetic Nervous System – “fight or flight”

Increases heart rate.

Releases noradrenaline/adrenaline.

2. Parasympathetic Nervous System – “rest and digest”

Decreases heart rate.

Works via the vagus nerve, releasing acetylcholine.

Example: When you are scared or running, your heart beats faster (sympathetic). When you are calm or sleeping, your heart beats slower (parasympathetic).

Q.4 Role of the Liver in Metabolism (10 marks)

Functions in Metabolism

Carbohydrate metabolism:

Stores glucose as glycogen.

Breaks glycogen into glucose when needed.

Protein metabolism:

Removes nitrogen from amino acids (produces urea).

Makes important blood proteins (albumin, clotting factors).

Fat metabolism:

Breaks down fats for energy.

Makes cholesterol and bile.

Detoxification:

Removes toxins and drugs from the blood.

Vitamin & mineral storage:

Stores vitamins (A, D, E, K, B12) and minerals (iron, copper).

Key point: The liver is the body’s main “chemical factory” .... it processes nutrients, makes energy, and removes toxins.

Dear Students, You should make a simple diagram for each question so you can memorize them faster for your exam. That way you’ll get both easy notes + visuals.

You should prepare those diagrams for Practice and revision to memorize these concepts and topics thoroughly.

Get ready to boost your learning! Creating those diagrams for practice and revision will help you grasp these concepts and topics more thoroughly. Dive in and make your study sessions fun and effective!

PMF 2025 F.Sc Equivalent: Practical Exam Pattern & Marks Breakdown for Allied Health Diplomas (BMS, Applied Science, Dispensing, OTT, MLT)

 Dear Students ..Hopefully you will be fine ....So lets Rock now here i am writing a complete updated article on the 2025 PMF (Punjab Medical Faculty) F.Sc-equivalent pattern, including the exact subjects you named (BMS, Applied Sciences, Dispensing Techniques, OT Techniques, etc.), the new marks/weightage structure, links to official downloadable PDFs, and practical/viva guidance tailored for All Allied Health Diploma students (Dispensing, OTT, MLT, Radiography, Physiotherapy, Ophthalmic, Cardiac, Dental Hygiene and others).

Below is a complete,student-friendly  that can be understandable for each and every Students I’ve also added short Roman-Urdu summaries for key sections so it’s immediately useful for students who prefer bilingual notes.Or faces Difficulties to understand.

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Practical Exams & New 2025 PMF F.Sc Pattern — Complete Guide for Allied Health Diploma Students (BMS, Applied Science, Dispensing, OT, MLT, Radiography, Physiotherapy, Ophthalmic, Cardiac & Dental Hygiene)

By: Professor Dr. Abdul Rehman Yousaf — WA: 0343-6253247

Description (SEO): Updated 2025 PMF (Punjab Medical Faculty) guide subject list, marks distribution, practical & viva pattern, important viva questions, exam strategy and memory tricks for Dispensing, Operation Theater, MLT, Radiography, Physiotherapy and other allied health diplomas. Official PMF PDFs linked.

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Quick summary (TL;DR)

• PMF has aligned many 2-year allied health diplomas to an F.Sc (Medical Technology Group) equivalent; core course + technique papers now follow the F.Sc style and marks pattern.
• The full diploma program is organized into papers and total marks = 600 for most two-year diplomas; practical / viva weightage = 50%.
• Technique papers (Dispensing Tech, Operation Theatre Techniques, Radiographic Techniques, Physiotherapy Techniques, Ophthalmic Techniques, etc.) are commonly 100 marks each; Basic Medical Sciences and Applied Sciences common papers are often 50 marks per paper under the F.Sc scheme — detailed content weightages are published by PMF.
• Official PMF reading material (BMS, Applied Sciences, Dispensing, OTT books and PDF downloads) is available on the PMF site — download links are listed in the official Books/Downloads page.

Dr.Abdul Rehman Yousaf 

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1. What changed in 2025 — Big picture (PMF → F.Sc equivalence)

English: In recent PMF updates the core two-year diplomas for many allied health technologies have been made equivalent to F.Sc (Medical Technology Group). This means: the course structure, paper formats (MCQ + short questions + long questions), and marks weightages now closely follow an F.Sc-type pattern, while preserving the heavy practical emphasis that defines allied health diplomas.

Roman Urdu (short): PMF ne kai 2-saal ke allied health diploma ab F.Sc barabar kar diye hain ....... matlab k paper format aur marks ab F.Sc jaisa hai, lekin practicals ki ahmiyat barqarar hai.

Why this matters for students:

• Formal academic recognition (better admission and job pathways).
• Exam pattern clarity: you can prepare using F.Sc-style sample papers (MCQs + short/long questions) while spending equal time on practicals.

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2. Which diplomas are now Equal to F.Sc (2025 list)

These PMF diplomas are explicitly listed as Equal to F.Sc (Medical Technology Group):
Dispenser / Dispensing Technician, Medical Laboratory Technician (MLT), Radiography & Imaging Technician, Operation Theater Technician (OTT), Physiotherapy Technician, Ophthalmic Technician, Cardiac Technician, Dental Hygienist.

Roman Urdu (short): Dispenser, MLT, Radiography, OTT, Physiotherapy, Ophthalmic, Cardiac, Dental Hygiene etc .....ye courses ab F.Sc barabar maane jate hain.

Note: Some other courses (e.g., Public Health Technician, Renal Dialysis Technician, Anesthesia Technician, Endoscopy Technician, CSSD, Mortuary Assistant) may follow the PMF scheme but are NOT listed under the F.Sc equivalency group ...... check PMF schemes page for each specialty.

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3. Full updated marks structure (how the 600 marks are distributed)

PMF’s two-year diploma formula (standard) for many F.Sc-equivalent diplomas:

Overall (summary):

• 1st Year: Core Course (Theory) — 100 marks
• 1st Year: Core Course (Practical / Viva) — 100 marks
• 2nd Year: Section I (Theory / Paper I) — 100 marks
• 2nd Year: Section II (Theory / Paper II) — 100 marks
• 2nd Year: Practical / Viva — Section I — 100 marks
• 2nd Year: Practical / Viva — Section II — 100 marks
  Total = 600 marks; practicals/viva overall ~50% of total.

Detailed content weightage (how a single paper is structured under F.Sc scheme): PMF content weightage documents show format examples for F.Sc papers. Technique papers (e.g., Operation Theatre Techniques, Radiographic Techniques, Dispensing Technology, Physiotherapy Techniques, Ophthalmic Techniques) are typically 100-mark papers with a mixed format = MCQs + short questions + long questions. Common papers like Basic Medical Sciences and Applied Sciences are often 50-mark papers (MCQs + short/long questions). Exact breakdown (MCQ count, short Q count, long Q count) is given in PMF “Content Weightages” documents ----Use those for exam practice.

Roman Urdu (short): Har diploma ka total aam tor pe 600 marks hai ....... 50% practical/viva. Technique papers aksar 100 marks hote hain; Basic Medical Sciences aur Applied Sciences jaise aam papers 50 marks ke ho saktay hain. Official weightages PMF ne publish ki hain.

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4. Subject structure (per diploma) * what to expect (BMS, Applied Science, Technique papers)

PMF bundles a Core Course (common to many streams) plus specialized technique papers. Below are common subject sets for major diplomas .... official PMF books for each paper are downloadable on PMF Books page (linked).

A. Dispensing / Dispenser (Dispensing Technology)

• Year 1: Basic Medical Sciences-I (Anatomy & Physiology), Dispensing Technique-I, Applied Sciences-I (Physics & Chemistry).
• Year 2: Basic Medical Sciences-II (First Aid & Public Health), Dispensing Technique-II, Applied Sciences-II (Computer & Patient Safety).
  (Reading materials and practical lists are available in PMF Dispensing PDFs).

B. Operation Theatre Technician (OT / OTT)

• Year 1: Basic Medical Sciences-I, Operation Theater Technique-I, Applied Sciences-I.
• Year 2: BMS-II, Operation Theater Technique-II, Applied Sciences-II.
  (Practical focus: sterilization, instrument handling, patient prep, anesthetic assistance).

C. Medical Laboratory Technician (MLT)

• Year 1: Elementary Anatomy & Micro Technique, Microbiology-I, Chemistry & Chemical Pathology (practicals heavy).
• Year 2: Clinical Pathology & Serology, Hematology & Blood Bank, Microbiology-II.

D. Radiography & Imaging

• Year 1: Basic Medical Sciences, Radiographic Technique-I (Physics, Radiological anatomy), Applied Sciences-I.
• Year 2: Radiographic Technique-II, BMS-II, Applied Sciences-II.

E. Physiotherapy, Ophthalmic, Cardiac, Dental Hygiene

• All follow similar two-year split: BMS, Applied Sciences, Technique I & II for the specialty, plus practical/viva components. PMF provides a book/pdf for each Technique-I & II.

Roman Urdu (short): Har course mein BMS (Anatomy/Physiology) aur Applied Sciences common hain; specialist technique papers (Dispensing, OT, Radiography, Physiotherapy etc.) Paper-I aur Paper-II ke roop mein 2 saal mein padhaye jate hain. PMF ki official books site par mil jati hain.

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5. Official downloadable resources .... where to get the PDFs (PMF)

PMF publishes reading materials and full syllabi (Core Course, BMS, Applied Sciences, Technique-I & II PDFs) ..... recommended downloads: PMF Books / Downloads page and specific course PDFs (Example: Dispensing Technique I/II, Operation Theatre Technician book, Radiographic Technique, etc.). Use the PMF Books/Downloads section to download the official PDFs and sample/past papers.

Why download official PDFs?

1. Exact syllabus and practical lists (what instruments/skills the examiners may ask).
2. Official sample papers and content weightages (know MCQ/short/long question counts).
3. Official reading material ensures you practise with the correct level & learning outcomes.

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6. How PMF F.Sc paper pattern looks (practical + theory format)  concrete example

From PMF Content Weightages (F.Sc scheme): technique papers typically use:

• MCQs (set number)
• Short questions (to be attempted subset)
• Long questions (partial attempt)
  Total adds up to 100 marks for technique paper. Basic Medical Sciences & Applied Sciences common papers typically total 50 marks with proportionate MCQ/short/long parts. See PMF content weightages official table for each specialty.

Example :: Dispensing / Technique paper shape (sample):

• MCQs: 20 (20 marks)
• Short Questions: 33 (attempt 25 for 50 marks)
• Long Questions: 5 (attempt 3 for 30 marks) → Total 100 marks. (This is the typical PMF model for dispensing & technique papers as indicated in the PMF weightage PDF).

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7. Practicals & Viva :: what examiners look for (and how marks are awarded)

Practical/Viva assesses:

• Correct sequence & technique (sterilization cycles, specimen handling, radiographic positioning, dispensing preparations)
• Aseptic technique & safety (infection control, PPE, radiation safety)
• Documentation & record keeping (logbooks, instrument checklists, patient charts)
• Understanding of why (explain the principle .... viva Qs probe underlying knowledge)
• Professionalism & communication (patient handling, ethics)

Marks rubric (generalized and examiner-friendly):

• Procedure accuracy & technique: 40%
• Time & efficiency: 15%
• Documentation & infection control: 15%
• Viva knowledge (why/how): 20%
• Professional behavior & communication: 10%

*(Exact marking schemes may vary by paper/center; PMF policy states practical/viva together form 50% of program assessment ...... check the examination policy or local examiners for rubric details). *

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8. Practical performance: step-by-step checklists (to get full marks)

A. Operation Theatre Practical (example)
Before start:

1. Confirm case & patient identity (2 identifiers)
2. Hand hygiene, PPE donning
3. Prepare sterile trolley 🛒 arrange instruments according to SOP
4. Confirm instrument counts & functioning (suction, cautery, lights)
5. Assist in patient positioning & draping safely
6. Maintain aseptic field; avoid breaches
7. Post-procedure: instrument decontamination, count, disposal & documentation

B. Dispensing Practical (example)

1. Read prescription: confirm drug names, dose, route
2. Check drug interactions & contraindications
3. Prepare dose (calculations shown step-by-step) ... show formula on paper
4. Label correctly & advise patient for administration & side effects
5. Record in dispensing register

C. MLT Practical (example)

1. Prepare smear / mount / staining (timing & technique critical)
2. Use proper labeling & chain of custody for samples
3. Calibrate instrument or show QC record
4. Interpret results with normal ranges & note next steps

Pro tip: When performing any practical, narrate every step (short sentences), e.g., “I will now check instrument sterility indicator, then load the autoclave at 121°C for 15 minutes.” This shows you know what you are doing and WHY 👈 examiners reward the “explain as you do” approach.

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9. Viva: most important questions (subject-wise lists)

Below are high-yield viva questions that PMF examiners commonly ask for allied health technique practicals. Memorize concise, correct answers.

Common viva for ALL techs:

• Define the job role of your diploma (1-line).
• List 3 major complications of your procedure and how to prevent them.
• How do you maintain infection control in your station? (show checklist)
• Explain PPE selection for X procedure.

Dispensing viva:

• How do you calculate dose for pediatric patient? (show calculation)
• What are the essential components of a prescription? (patient, drug, dose, route, frequency, duration, signature)
• Drug storage conditions for insulin / vaccines.

Operation Theater viva:

• Explain instrument sterilization methods and indicators.
• Give steps to manage a patient with anaphylaxis in OT.
• How to prevent surgical site infection?

Radiography viva:

• Explain ALARA principle (radiation safety).
• Give positioning for AP chest vs lateral chest.
• Safe use of contrast agents and allergic reactions.

MLT viva:

• Steps in preparing a peripheral blood smear.
• Explain normal range of Hb and common errors in estimation.
• How do you handle a leaking sample?

*(For full lists couple this section with PMF past papers and Book technique PDFs 🧿 download from PMF Books page). *

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10. How to study and memorize practicals 🩺 evidence-backed methods that work

These are practical learning techniques especially useful for PMF F.Sc style diplomas:

1) See–Do–Teach (Triad)

• See demonstration → Do under supervision → Teach a peer. Teaching forces clarity and the Feynman effect improves long-term memory.

2) 20/5 Practice Blocks (spaced repetition)

• 20 minutes active practice of a procedure → 5 minutes note/review (repeat throughout day). Spacing helps skill retention.

3) Flowcharts & Mnemonics

• Make a one-page flowchart per procedure (e.g., OT instrument prep) and mnemonic for steps (e.g., “S-P-C-D”: Select, Prepare, Check, Document).

4) Flashcards for Viva

• One question per card; short answer at back. Drill 30 minutes/day; simulate an examiner.

5) Logbook Mastery

• Keep logbook updated and signed. Examiners check it 📖 missing or unsigned entries are red flags.

6) Mock Practicals & Timed Runs

• Time yourself. Practicals are scored on efficiency. Simulate exam conditions and fix errors.

7) Active Note Format

• Make “one-line why” beside each step 📝 e.g., “Autoclave 121°C for 15 min .... kills vegetative bacteria & spores.”

Roman Urdu (short tips): Dekho ..karna seekho ... dosre ko samjhao. 20 minute practice, 5 minute break. Flowchart banao. Logbook update rakho. Mock practicals karo.

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11. How to write practical reports & exam answers (format that gets marks)

Writing style examiners love (concise + clinical):

• Header: Name, Roll No., Date, Procedure
• Objective: One line .... “To demonstrate safe packing and sterilization of a minor surgery tray.”
• Materials: bullet list of instruments (short)
• Method: numbered steps (1,2,3 .... clear)
• Precautions: 2–3 bullet points
• Result/Observation: If applicable .. temperature/indicator change
• Conclusion: One-line learning/outcome
• References/Logbook: entry number & signature

Why this works: Clarity, clinical sequence and evidence (logs/indicators) show you not only performed but understood the principle.

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12. Time management & exam day strategy

• Night before: Review one mini-flash sheet for each planned practical (10 minutes each).
• Morning of exam: 20-minute timed rehearsal of your most important procedure.
• At station: Read the task for 30 seconds, plan steps in head (or on paper), then perform.
• During viva: If you don’t know an answer .... stay calm; say “I will check that but the immediate priority is patient safety” .... honesty + safety focus is valued.
• After station: Log the steps you did in your notebook while memory fresh (for logbook signature).

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13. Sample “Full marks” rubric - apply to any practical (checklist you must meet)

1. Patient / Case identification — 2 marks
2. Preparation & asepsis — 10 marks
3. Correct technique & sequence — 20 marks
4. Time efficiency — 5 marks
5. Documentation & labeling — 8 marks
6. Viva answers (WHY) — 20 marks
7. Professionalism / Communication — 5 marks
8. Post-procedure clean up & safety checks — 5 marks
9. Logbook / signature — 5 marks
10. Error handling / troubleshooting — 20 marks

(Total 100 — exemplifies where examiners may allocate marks; adapt per station)

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14. How to use PMF PDFs to your advantage (download → practice → score)

Step-by-step:

1. Download the technique book & content weightages for your course from PMF Books/Downloads.
2. List every practical named in the PDF. Make a “must-practice” list of top 20 tasks (high probability in exams).
3. Create a one-page mini-sheet for each task with materials, steps, pitfalls.
4. Practice with peers until you can perform without notes.
5. Hold mock viva sessions; use PMF sample questions to simulate exam environment.

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15. Important PMF official links & resources (where to download)

• PMF Schemes of Studies (F.Sc Equivalence list & policy) — PMF Schemes page.
• PMF Books / Downloads (Core Course, BMS, Applied Sciences, Dispensing, OTT, Radiography, Physiotherapy tech books) — PMF Books page.
• Content Weightages / Paper Pattern (F.Sc scheme) — PMF content weightages PDF for paper structure.
• Specific course PDFs: Dispensing, OTT, Radiography, MLT (see PMF Downloads Books).

Use the PMF Books/Downloads page as your source of truth .... always download the latest PDF before an exam.

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16. Common mistakes that cost marks (and how to avoid them)

1. Not signing/maintaining logbook — keep it updated & signed by supervisors.
2. Poor narration — don’t do silent steps; explain as you act.
3. Skipping safety checks — auto-fail risk.
4. Wrong labeling — especially in MLT, sample labeling errors lose marks.
5. No backup plan for failure — if something breaks, explain troubleshooting steps.

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17. Quick revision cheat-sheet (one-page checklist for exam day)

• Bring: ID, Logbook (signed), uniform, PPE, basic calculator, notebook & pen.
• Before entering: 2-minute mental run of steps.
• Start: Read instruction, plan, narrate, perform, document.
• After: Log actions, check with supervisor, breathe & reset.

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18. Viva sample answers (short models you should memorize)

Q: “Why autoclave at 121°C for 15 minutes?”
A: “121°C at 15 psi for 15 minutes ensures steam penetration to destroy bacterial vegetative forms and spores; it is standard for wrapped instruments.” (Add indicator/pack date).

Q: “How do you calculate pediatric medicine dose?”
A: “Dose = (child’s weight in kg) × standard mg/kg dose. Show calculation and round to practical dose where needed.”

Q: “How to prevent cross-infection in OT?”
A: “Strict asepsis, full PPE, separate clean & dirty areas, instrument counts & sterilization logs, hand hygiene compliance.”

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19. Preparing for PMF paper pattern MCQs / short & long questions

• MCQ practice: Use PMF sample papers & past papers (F.Sc scheme sample papers are published). Focus on fact recall and safety values.
• Short questions: Practice concise 2–4 line answers for common tasks (e.g., “Steps of blood smear”).
• Long questions: Structure answers ....definition, principle, step-wise method, complications & prevention, one concluding line.

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20. Final checklist before you submit / sit for exam

• Logbook complete & signed — CHECK.
• All instruments/equipment known for your area — CHECK.
• One mini-sheet per procedure printed — CHECK.
• Mock viva done this week — CHECK.
• Rested and hydrated — CHECK.

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Disclaimer (AdSense & medical-education compliance)

This blog is educational and meant for exam preparation and professional study. For clinical patient care, always follow your supervising trainer, institutional SOPs, and PMF official instructions. This guide summarizes PMF published syllabi and content weightages; always verify final schedules/updates on the PMF official website.

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