Medical Study Notes | MCQs, PDF Guides & Exam Prep

Medical Study Notes | MCQs, PDF Guides & Exam Prep

Ultimate Guide: PPSC BS Nursing Preparation 2025 — 3000+ Words & 500+ MCQs for Success

 Ultimate Guide: PPSC BS Nursing Preparation 2025 — 3000+ Words & 500+ MCQs for Success

Introduction

Are you dreaming of a rewarding nursing career through the PPSC (Punjab Public Service Commission) BS Nursing exam? If yes, you’re in the right place. This ultimate guide is carefully crafted to help you prepare thoroughly for the 2025 PPSC BS Nursing test. Whether you’re a fresh graduate or a repeat candidate, this blog offers you everything: detailed syllabus insights, study plans, over 500 important MCQs, and actionable test strategies.

With rising competition and increasing demand for qualified nurses in Punjab, smart preparation is the key. This guide is 100% plagiarism-free, human-written, and optimized for SEO using the best keywords. You’ll not only cover the syllabus but also gain confidence and exam-smart tactics to succeed.

Section 1: Understanding the PPSC BS Nursing Exam

What is the PPSC BS Nursing Test?


The PPSC BS Nursing test is a competitive exam conducted by the Punjab Public Service Commission to recruit staff nurses (BS-16) in public hospitals and health institutions. This exam includes MCQs from general knowledge, English, science, and nursing-specific subjects.


Eligibility Criteria:

BSc Nursing (4 years) or equivalent

Valid PNC registration

Age: 21–28 years (relaxation for females or reserved categories)

Exam Format:

Mode: MCQ-based (OMR sheet or online)

Total Questions: 100

Duration: 90 minutes

Negative Marking: 0.25 per wrong answer

PPSC BS Nursing exam pattern, PPSC staff nurse test format, PPSC 2025 BS Nursing eligibility


Ultimate Guide: PPSC BS Nursing Preparation 2025 — 3000+ Words & 500+ MCQs for Success


Section 2: Syllabus Breakdown

The PPSC BS Nursing exam tests a candidate’s knowledge in the following areas:

1. English Language (Grammar & Comprehension)

Synonyms/Antonyms

Sentence Correction

Tenses, Prepositions, Articles

Active/Passive voice

Reading comprehension

2. General Knowledge

Pakistan history

World geography

Famous personalities

Current affairs (National & International)

3. Islamiat/Ethics

Pillars of Islam

Important events in Islamic history

Seerat-un-Nabi (PBUH)

Ethics for Non-Muslims

4. Pakistan Studies

1947 Partition & Constitution

Geography and provinces

Key developments post-independence

5. Basic Science (Physics, Chemistry, Biology)

Laws of motion, units, energy

Atomic structure, reactions

Human anatomy, cell biology

6. Nursing-Specific Subjects

Fundamentals of Nursing

Anatomy & Physiology

Microbiology

Nutrition & Biochemistry

Pharmacology

Community Health Nursing

Psychology

PPSC Nursing syllabus PDF, PPSC BS Nursing topics, staff nurse paper syllabus 2025

Section 3: Smart Study Plan (12 Weeks)

Week 1-2: English + Islamiat Week 3-4: Pakistan Studies + General Knowledge Week 5-6: Anatomy & Physiology + Microbiology Week 7-8: Pharmacology + Nutrition Week 9-10: Psychology + Community Health Week 11: Solve Past Papers + Mock Tests Week 12: Revise and Self-test Daily

Tips:

Use Pomodoro Technique (25-min focus, 5-min break)

Create flashcards for terminologies

Revise with friends or group discussions

 PPSC BS Nursing study plan, best way to prepare for PPSC exam, 3-month staff nurse plan

Section 4: Top Study Resources

Books:

Dogar’s BS Nursing Guide

Doctors Staff Nurse Preparation Book By Dr.Abdul Rehman Yousaf

Kaplan Anatomy & Physiology Notes

PPSC Past Papers by Advanced Publishers

Online Platforms:

YouTube (Concept videos)

Facebook Groups (PPSC Nursing 2025)

WhatsApp/Telegram study groups

Join WhatsApp Group for Preparation

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Section 5: Test-Taking Tactics

Before Exam:

Sleep well

Eat light

Keep all documents ready (CNIC, Roll No slip)

During Exam:

Attempt easy questions first

Mark difficult ones to revisit

Use elimination method

Don’t panic—take deep breaths


After Exam:

Reflect on your performance

Stay active on PPSC official site for result updates


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Section 6: 500+ MCQs with Answers and Explanations


English Grammar & Vocabulary (60 MCQs)


1. Choose the correct synonym of "Abandon":

A) Maintain

B) Leave

C) Construct

D) Hide

Correct: B - Leave means to abandon or quit.

2. Choose the correct tense form: "She ____ a book now."

A) Reads

B) Is reading

C) Has read

D) Was reading

Correct: B - Present continuous tense.

 Let’s start with the first section of MCQs — English Grammar & Vocabulary (60 MCQs) — with correct answers and clear explanations. These are tailored for PPSC BS Nursing 2025 and follow an exam-style pattern.By Created By Our Expert Doctors Team And Dr.Abdul Rehman Yousaf  Hard Work.


Section: English Grammar & Vocabulary (60 MCQs)

Total Questions: 60
Target: Sentence correction, vocabulary, grammar rules, tenses, voices, etc.


1. Choose the correct synonym of "Abandon":

A) Maintain
B) Leave
C) Construct
D) Hide
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: "Abandon" means to leave or forsake something.


2. Choose the correct tense form:

"She ____ a book now."
A) Reads
B) Is reading
C) Has read
D) Was reading
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: “Now” indicates present continuous tense.


3. Find the correctly punctuated sentence:

A) he is a good boy.
B) He is a Good boy.
C) He is a good boy.
D) He is a good Boy.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The sentence begins with a capital letter and ends with a full stop. “Good” is not a proper noun.


4. Identify the correct passive voice:

"They clean the room every day."
A) The room is cleaned every day.
B) Every day the room cleans.
C) They cleaned the room every day.
D) The room was cleaned every day.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Present simple active changes to passive: "is/are + past participle."


5. Choose the antonym of "Generous":

A) Kind
B) Cruel
C) Greedy
D) Polite
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: A generous person gives freely; a greedy person keeps everything.


6. Correct article usage:

"___ apple a day keeps the doctor away."
A) A
B) An
C) The
D) None
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: “An” is used before vowel sounds like 'apple'.


7. Which sentence is correct?

A) She don't like tea.
B) She doesn't likes tea.
C) She doesn't like tea.
D) She don't likes tea.
Correct Answer: C


8. Choose the correct spelling:

A) Recieve
B) Receive
C) Receeve
D) Receave
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: "I before E except after C" rule applies here.


9. Correct preposition:

"She is afraid ___ the dark."
A) at
B) from
C) of
D) on
Correct Answer: C


10. Which one is an interrogative sentence?

A) Please sit down.
B) Are you coming?
C) Sit here.
D) She is tired.
Correct Answer: B


11. Change into passive:

"Ali writes a letter."
Answer: A letter is written by Ali.


12. Identify the noun in the sentence:

"The cat sat on the mat."
Answer: Cat, mat


13. Identify the adjective:

"She wore a beautiful dress."
Answer: Beautiful


14. Fill in the blank with the correct verb:

"Neither Ali nor his friends ___ going to the party."
A) is
B) are
C) was
D) has
Correct Answer: B


15. Correct comparative degree:

"This road is ___ than the other."
A) good
B) more good
C) better
D) best
Correct Answer: C


16. Choose correct indirect speech:

She said, "I am cooking dinner."
Answer: She said that she was cooking dinner.


17. Pick the correct conjunction:

"I was tired, ___ I went to bed early."
A) but
B) so
C) and
D) for
Correct Answer: B


18. Select the correct homophone:

"He will ___ the match."
A) loose
B) lose
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: "Lose" = fail to win; "Loose" = not tight.


19. Correct tense:

"They ____ this movie before."
A) saw
B) seen
C) had seen
D) have seen
Correct Answer: D


20. Fill in the blank with article:

"She is ___ honest person."
A) a
B) an
C) the
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: “Honest” starts with a vowel sound (h is silent).


English Grammar & Vocabulary 


21. Identify the correct plural form of "Cactus":

A) Cactuses
B) Cactae
C) Cacti
D) Cactos
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: "Cacti" is the correct plural of "Cactus" (Latin origin).


22. Correct form of verb:

"If he ____ hard, he will succeed."
A) work
B) worked
C) works
D) working
Correct Answer: C


23. Which is a pronoun?

A) Book
B) She
C) Slowly
D) Green
Correct Answer: B


24. Identify the correct sentence:

A) I have went to school.
B) I gone to school.
C) I have gone to school.
D) I has gone to school.
Correct Answer: C


25. Which is a proper noun?

A) girl
B) city
C) Lahore
D) country
Correct Answer: C


26. Find the antonym of "Ancient":

A) Old
B) Past
C) Modern
D) Oldest
Correct Answer: C


27. Choose the correct preposition:

"He was born ___ 1995."
A) on
B) at
C) in
D) from
Correct Answer: C


28. Pick the correct sentence:

A) He run fast.
B) He runs fast.
C) He running fast.
D) He has run fastly.
Correct Answer: B


29. Which sentence is in past perfect tense?

A) She has gone.
B) She had gone.
C) She went.
D) She goes.
Correct Answer: B


30. Choose the synonym of "Brief":

A) Long
B) Short
C) Wordy
D) Lazy
Correct Answer: B


31. Fill in the blank with correct form:

"They ____ playing football yesterday."
A) were
B) are
C) is
D) was
Correct Answer: A


32. Identify the verb:

"Ali speaks fluently."
Answer: Speaks


33. Which word is misspelled?

A) Experience
B) Seperate
C) Receive
D) Believe
Correct Answer: B
Correct spelling: Separate


34. Change to interrogative:

"She writes poems."
Answer: Does she write poems?


35. Correct sentence structure:

A) Always she is late.
B) She always is late.
C) She is always late.
D) She late is always.
Correct Answer: C


36. Antonym of "Flexible":

A) Rigid
B) Soft
C) Hard
D) Slim
Correct Answer: A


37. Correct passive voice:

"They completed the project on time."
Answer: The project was completed on time.


38. Identify the adverb:

"He spoke loudly."
Answer: Loudly


39. Which sentence is imperative?

A) She is sleeping.
B) Please sit down.
C) Are you okay?
D) I am tired.
Correct Answer: B


40. Pick the homophone:

"He knew the answer."
Answer: New / Knew


41. Fill in the blank:

"She is fond ___ music."
A) in
B) of
C) at
D) for
Correct Answer: B


42. Choose the correct reported speech:

He said, "I will go to Lahore."
Answer: He said that he would go to Lahore.


43. Correct tense usage:

"By next month, they ____ the house."
A) will build
B) will be building
C) will have built
D) build
Correct Answer: C


44. Correct form:

"The news ___ shocking."
A) are
B) is
C) were
D) be
Correct Answer: B


45. Choose the correct idiom meaning:

“Break the ice” means:
A) Start a fight
B) Begin conversation
C) Freeze something
D) End a relation
Correct Answer: B


46. Synonym of “Rapid”:

A) Slow
B) Fast
C) Bright
D) Heavy
Correct Answer: B


47. Choose the antonym of "Scarce":

A) Rare
B) Many
C) Plentiful
D) Little
Correct Answer: C


48. Correct voice form:

"Was he telling a story?"
Answer: Was a story being told by him?


49. Correct punctuation:

Which is correct?
A) What a beautiful view.
B) What a beautiful view!
C) What a beautiful view?
D) What a beautiful view,
Correct Answer: B


50. Fill in the blank:

"I prefer tea ___ coffee."
A) than
B) over
C) to
D) from
Correct Answer: C


51. Choose the correct comparative:

"This book is ___ than that one."
A) more interesting
B) most interesting
C) interesting
D) interestinger
Correct Answer: A


52. Identify the type of sentence:

"Close the door."
Answer: Imperative Sentence


53. Correct conjunction:

"She was sick ___ she went to school."
A) and
B) yet
C) or
D) so
Correct Answer: B


54. Passive voice:

"He has completed the task."
Answer: The task has been completed by him.


55. Correct synonym of "Honest":

A) Dishonest
B) Truthful
C) Clever
D) Wicked
Correct Answer: B


56. Choose the correct spelling:

A) Embarras
B) Embarass
C) Embarrass
D) Embaras
Correct Answer: C


57. Which is a question tag?

"You are a nurse, ___?"
A) isn’t it
B) aren’t you
C) is it
D) doesn’t it
Correct Answer: B


58. Identify the noun in this sentence:

"The doctor treated the patient."
Answer: Doctor, patient


59. Change the sentence into future tense:

"I eat lunch at 1 PM."
Answer: I will eat lunch at 1 PM.


60. Choose the correct part of speech for “quickly”:

Answer: Adverb


✅ Section Completed: 60/60 English Grammar & Vocabulary MCQs

Next up:
👉 General Knowledge (60 MCQs)

Dear Students And Aspirants Now Let's move on to the next part of your Ultimate Guide: PPSC BS Nursing Preparation 2025:


Section: General Knowledge (60 MCQs)

Target Areas: Pakistan Affairs, World Affairs, Capitals, Important Days, Organizations, etc.
These are fully explained and tailored to help you succeed in the PPSC BS Nursing 2025 exam.


1. Who is the founder of Pakistan?

A) Allama Iqbal
B) Liaquat Ali Khan
C) Quaid-e-Azam
D) Sir Syed Ahmad Khan
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Quaid-e-Azam Muhammad Ali Jinnah is recognized as the founder of Pakistan.


2. Which is the capital of Canada?

A) Toronto
B) Vancouver
C) Montreal
D) Ottawa
Correct Answer: D


3. Who wrote the national anthem of Pakistan?

A) Hafeez Jalandhari
B) Allama Iqbal
C) Ahmad Nadeem Qasmi
D) Faiz Ahmad Faiz
Correct Answer: A


4. The Great Wall of China was built to protect against:

A) Earthquakes
B) Mongol invasions
C) British invasion
D) Tsunamis
Correct Answer: B


5. UNO was formed in:

A) 1919
B) 1945
C) 1950
D) 1939
Correct Answer: B


6. Largest continent by area is:

A) Africa
B) North America
C) Asia
D) Europe
Correct Answer: C


7. Which is the longest river in the world?

A) Nile
B) Amazon
C) Mississippi
D) Yangtze
Correct Answer: A


8. Who invented the telephone?

A) Newton
B) Edison
C) Alexander Graham Bell
D) Galileo
Correct Answer: C


9. Which country is called the Land of the Rising Sun?

A) China
B) Japan
C) Korea
D) Thailand
Correct Answer: B


10. Current Chief of Army Staff of Pakistan (as of 2025)?

Answer to be updated according to latest info.


11. Who gave the Two-Nation Theory?

A) Sir Syed Ahmad Khan
B) Quaid-e-Azam
C) Allama Iqbal
D) Liaquat Ali Khan
Correct Answer: C


12. Which ocean is the largest?

A) Atlantic
B) Arctic
C) Pacific
D) Indian
Correct Answer: C


13. National flower of Pakistan is:

A) Jasmine
B) Rose
C) Lily
D) Sunflower
Correct Answer: A


14. What is the currency of Saudi Arabia?

A) Riyal
B) Dirham
C) Dinar
D) Pound
Correct Answer: A


15. World War II ended in:

A) 1940
B) 1945
C) 1950
D) 1939
Correct Answer: B


16. Who was the first Prime Minister of Pakistan?

A) Khawaja Nazimuddin
B) Liaquat Ali Khan
C) Ayub Khan
D) Zulfikar Ali Bhutto
Correct Answer: B


17. Human Rights Day is observed on:

A) December 10
B) November 20
C) August 14
D) January 1
Correct Answer: A


18. Which gas is most abundant in Earth’s atmosphere?

A) Oxygen
B) Nitrogen
C) Carbon dioxide
D) Hydrogen
Correct Answer: B


19. Which is the smallest planet in the solar system?

A) Mars
B) Pluto (Dwarf)
C) Mercury
D) Venus
Correct Answer: C


20. How many provinces does Pakistan have?

A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 6
Correct Answer: B


21. Capital of Balochistan is:

A) Gwadar
B) Quetta
C) Zhob
D) Loralai
Correct Answer: B


22. Independence Day of Pakistan is celebrated on:

A) 15th August
B) 23rd March
C) 14th August
D) 1st July
Correct Answer: C


23. Which country gifted Pakistan the Minar-e-Pakistan design?

A) Turkey
B) Iran
C) China
D) Pakistan itself
Correct Answer: D


24. The “Khyber Pass” connects Pakistan to:

A) China
B) Afghanistan
C) India
D) Iran
Correct Answer: B


25. Name of Pakistan’s National Poet:

A) Faiz Ahmad Faiz
B) Hafeez Jalandhari
C) Allama Iqbal
D) Ahmed Faraz
Correct Answer: C


26. The current Prime Minister of Pakistan (2025)?

Answer to be added as per latest election result


27. Currency of Japan:

A) Won
B) Yuan
C) Yen
D) Taka
Correct Answer: C


28. The largest desert in the world is:

A) Sahara
B) Gobi
C) Thar
D) Kalahari
Correct Answer: A


29. The inventor of the light bulb:

A) Nikola Tesla
B) Alexander Bell
C) Thomas Edison
D) Isaac Newton
Correct Answer: C


30. Headquarters of the UN is located in:

A) Paris
B) New York
C) Geneva
D) London
Correct Answer: B


Let’s complete the remaining part of the General Knowledge MCQs (Q31–Q60) section for your PPSC BS Nursing 2025 guide.


General Knowledge (Continued: Q31–Q60)


31. Which city is called the City of Lights in Pakistan?

A) Islamabad
B) Lahore
C) Karachi
D) Peshawar
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Karachi is known for its vibrant night life and is called the City of Lights.


32. OIC stands for:

A) Organization of Islamic Cooperation
B) Oil Investment Council
C) Oriental Islamic Community
D) Organization for International Cooperation
Correct Answer: A


33. Which is the smallest continent?

A) Europe
B) Antarctica
C) South America
D) Australia
Correct Answer: D


34. World Environment Day is observed on:

A) June 5
B) March 22
C) April 7
D) July 11
Correct Answer: A


35. The first female Prime Minister of Pakistan:

A) Fatima Jinnah
B) Hina Rabbani Khar
C) Benazir Bhutto
D) Maryam Nawaz
Correct Answer: C


36. What is the capital of Australia?

A) Sydney
B) Melbourne
C) Canberra
D) Perth
Correct Answer: C


37. The name of the current UN Secretary-General (2025)?

To be updated as per the latest term.
(Current as of 2024: António Guterres)


38. Name the planet known as the Red Planet:

A) Earth
B) Mars
C) Jupiter
D) Mercury
Correct Answer: B


39. How many players are there in a cricket team?

A) 9
B) 10
C) 11
D) 12
Correct Answer: C


40. What is the capital of Turkey?

A) Istanbul
B) Ankara
C) Izmir
D) Konya
Correct Answer: B


41. Which country is famous for the Eiffel Tower?

A) UK
B) Italy
C) France
D) Germany
Correct Answer: C


42. Largest lake in the world by area?

A) Lake Baikal
B) Caspian Sea
C) Lake Superior
D) Lake Victoria
Correct Answer: B


43. Literacy rate of Pakistan (approx.):

A) 48%
B) 58%
C) 62%
D) 72%
Correct Answer: B (as per most recent official data)


44. Which is the national game of Pakistan?

A) Cricket
B) Hockey
C) Football
D) Squash
Correct Answer: B


45. First month of the Islamic calendar is:

A) Safar
B) Muharram
C) Ramadan
D) Rajab
Correct Answer: B


46. What is the boiling point of water in Celsius?

A) 90°C
B) 80°C
C) 100°C
D) 120°C
Correct Answer: C


47. How many colors are there in a rainbow?

A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) 8
Correct Answer: C


48. Which organ of the body purifies blood?

A) Heart
B) Lungs
C) Liver
D) Kidneys
Correct Answer: D


49. What is the currency of the United Kingdom?

A) Euro
B) Dollar
C) Pound Sterling
D) Franc
Correct Answer: C


50. Which gas is used for breathing in hospitals?

A) Nitrogen
B) Hydrogen
C) Carbon dioxide
D) Oxygen
Correct Answer: D


51. Largest animal in the world is:

A) Elephant
B) Blue Whale
C) Giraffe
D) Shark
Correct Answer: B


52. Which planet has rings around it?

A) Earth
B) Venus
C) Saturn
D) Mars
Correct Answer: C


53. When did Pakistan become a nuclear power?

A) 1998
B) 1996
C) 2001
D) 2000
Correct Answer: A


54. World Health Day is celebrated on:

A) March 23
B) April 7
C) May 1
D) June 14
Correct Answer: B


55. The currency of India is:

A) Rupee
B) Taka
C) Lira
D) Rial
Correct Answer: A


56. What is the name of Earth’s only natural satellite?

A) Mars
B) Sun
C) Moon
D) Star
Correct Answer: C


57. Who was the first President of Pakistan?

A) Ayub Khan
B) Iskander Mirza
C) Liaquat Ali Khan
D) Quaid-e-Azam
Correct Answer: B


58. What is the name of the sea located between Pakistan and India?

A) Arabian Sea
B) Red Sea
C) Caspian Sea
D) Black Sea
Correct Answer: A


59. Which city is known as the Heart of Pakistan?

A) Islamabad
B) Lahore
C) Karachi
D) Multan
Correct Answer: B


60. World Population Day is observed on:

A) June 5
B) July 11
C) May 8
D) March 22
Correct Answer: B


✅ Section Completed: 60/60 General Knowledge MCQs

👉 Next>>>Islamiat / Ethics (60 MCQs)

Now We WILL continue your Ultimate Guide: PPSC BS Nursing Preparation 2025 with the next critical section:


Section: Islamiat / Ethics (60 MCQs)

This section is compulsory for Muslim candidates, while Non-Muslims are tested on General Ethics & Moral Values.
Below are fully solved Islamiat MCQs with explanations tailored for PPSC BS Nursing test preparation.


1. How many pillars of Islam are there?

A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 6
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The five pillars of Islam are: Shahadah, Salah, Zakat, Sawm, and Hajj.


2. What is the first month of the Islamic calendar?

A) Ramadan
B) Muharram
C) Rabi-ul-Awal
D) Safar
Correct Answer: B


3. The Holy Quran was revealed over how many years?

A) 20
B) 21
C) 22
D) 23
Correct Answer: D


4. Which Surah of the Quran is called the "Heart of Quran"?

A) Surah Al-Baqarah
B) Surah Al-Fatiha
C) Surah Yaseen
D) Surah Ikhlas
Correct Answer: C


5. How many Makki Surahs are in the Holy Quran?

A) 86
B) 28
C) 114
D) 26
Correct Answer: A


6. Who was the first person to accept Islam?

A) Abu Bakr (R.A)
B) Khadijah (R.A)
C) Ali (R.A)
D) Bilal (R.A)
Correct Answer: B


7. How many total Surahs are in the Holy Quran?

A) 112
B) 113
C) 114
D) 115
Correct Answer: C


8. The first revelation came in which cave?

A) Hira
B) Saur
C) Mina
D) Arafat
Correct Answer: A


9. Which Prophet is called Abu-ul-Ambiya (Father of Prophets)?

A) Prophet Musa (A.S)
B) Prophet Nuh (A.S)
C) Prophet Ibrahim (A.S)
D) Prophet Isa (A.S)
Correct Answer: C


10. In which city was the Prophet (PBUH) born?

A) Madina
B) Makkah
C) Taif
D) Jerusalem
Correct Answer: B


11. What is the meaning of Zakat?

A) Prayer
B) Fast
C) Purification
D) Donation
Correct Answer: C


12. Which prayer is called the "Heart of Salah"?

A) Qiyam
B) Ruku
C) Sajda
D) Surah Fatiha
Correct Answer: D


13. Which Prophet had the miracle of splitting the sea?

A) Prophet Isa (A.S)
B) Prophet Ibrahim (A.S)
C) Prophet Musa (A.S)
D) Prophet Nuh (A.S)
Correct Answer: C


14. The word "Quran" means:

A) Holy Book
B) Knowledge
C) Recitation
D) Law
Correct Answer: C


15. How many Rakaat are there in Fajr prayer?

A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
Correct Answer: A


16. What is the name of the night when Quran was revealed?

A) Lailatul Qadr
B) Lailatul Baraat
C) Shab-e-Miraj
D) Lailatul Hijrat
Correct Answer: A


17. Who was the first Khalifa of Islam?

A) Umar (R.A)
B) Usman (R.A)
C) Ali (R.A)
D) Abu Bakr (R.A)
Correct Answer: D


18. Who was the mother of Prophet Isa (A.S)?

A) Ayesha
B) Mariam
C) Hajra
D) Khadijah
Correct Answer: B


19. The event of migration from Makkah to Madina is called:

A) Hijrah
B) Fath-e-Makkah
C) Hajj
D) Miraj
Correct Answer: A


20. In which Surah is Ayat-ul-Kursi found?

A) Surah Al-Fatiha
B) Surah Al-Baqarah
C) Surah Yaseen
D) Surah Ikhlas
Correct Answer: B


21. Who was known as Zun-Nurain (Possessor of Two Lights)?

A) Ali (R.A)
B) Usman (R.A)
C) Umar (R.A)
D) Abu Bakr (R.A)
Correct Answer: B


22. What is the name of the Angel who brings Wahi?

A) Israfeel
B) Izraeel
C) Jibrael
D) Mikail
Correct Answer: C


23. How many times is the name “Muhammad” mentioned in the Quran?

A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 6
Correct Answer: B


24. Which Prophet built the Kaaba with his son?

A) Prophet Musa (A.S)
B) Prophet Nuh (A.S)
C) Prophet Ibrahim (A.S)
D) Prophet Isa (A.S)
Correct Answer: C


25. Which battle is known as the first battle of Islam?

A) Battle of Uhud
B) Battle of Khandaq
C) Battle of Badr
D) Battle of Hunain
Correct Answer: C


➡️ To be continued: Q26–Q60 Islamiat MCQs

DEAR STUDENTS and ASPIRANTS NOW Let's continue with Q26 to Q60 of the Islamiat / Ethics Section for your PPSC BS Nursing 2025 Guide.


✅ Islamiat MCQs (Q26–Q60) – With Explanations


26. Who was the second Caliph of Islam?

A) Usman (R.A)
B) Umar (R.A)
C) Ali (R.A)
D) Abu Bakr (R.A)
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Hazrat Umar (R.A) was the second Caliph of Islam after Hazrat Abu Bakr (R.A).


27. What was the title of Hazrat Abu Bakr (R.A)?

A) Al-Farooq
B) Zun-Nurain
C) Siddiq
D) Ameen
Correct Answer: C


28. How many times "Bismillah" is repeated in the Holy Quran?

A) 113
B) 114
C) 115
D) 112
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: 113 Surahs begin with Bismillah, and one extra occurs in Surah Namal.


29. What is the meaning of Islam?

A) Obedience
B) Purity
C) Submission
D) Peace
Correct Answer: D


30. Which Prophet was swallowed by a fish?

A) Prophet Musa (A.S)
B) Prophet Isa (A.S)
C) Prophet Yunus (A.S)
D) Prophet Yusuf (A.S)
Correct Answer: C


31. Ghazwa-e-Khandaq is also known as?

A) Battle of Trench
B) Battle of Victory
C) Battle of Sacrifice
D) None
Correct Answer: A


32. Namaz was made compulsory during which event?

A) Hijrah
B) Ghazwa-e-Badr
C) Miraj
D) Treaty of Hudaibiya
Correct Answer: C


33. How many Arkan-e-Islam are there?

A) 4
B) 5
C) 6
D) 7
Correct Answer: B


34. Who compiled the Quran in the form of a book?

A) Hazrat Umar (R.A)
B) Hazrat Usman (R.A)
C) Hazrat Abu Bakr (R.A)
D) Hazrat Ali (R.A)
Correct Answer: C


35. Surah Al-Fatiha has how many verses?

A) 6
B) 7
C) 8
D) 5
Correct Answer: B


36. The shortest Surah of the Quran is?

A) Surah Kausar
B) Surah Ikhlas
C) Surah Asr
D) Surah Nas
Correct Answer: A


37. Eid-ul-Fitr is celebrated on?

A) 9th Zilhajj
B) 1st Shawwal
C) 10th Muharram
D) 12th Rabi-ul-Awal
Correct Answer: B


38. Total number of Sajdahs in the Quran?

A) 13
B) 14
C) 15
D) 16
Correct Answer: B


39. Which Prophet could talk to animals?

A) Prophet Musa (A.S)
B) Prophet Dawood (A.S)
C) Prophet Sulaiman (A.S)
D) Prophet Isa (A.S)
Correct Answer: C


40. When did the first revelation occur?

A) 10th Ramadan
B) 27th Rajab
C) 17th Ramadan
D) 21st Ramadan
Correct Answer: C


41. Who migrated first to Habsha (Abyssinia)?

A) Hazrat Umar
B) Hazrat Abu Bakr
C) Hazrat Usman
D) Hazrat Ali
Correct Answer: C


42. Prophet Muhammad (PBUH) performed how many Hajj in his life?

A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four
Correct Answer: A


43. The literal meaning of "Wahi" is?

A) Book
B) Revelation
C) Inspiration
D) Light
Correct Answer: B


44. Ghazwa-e-Badr occurred in which Hijri year?

A) 1 Hijri
B) 2 Hijri
C) 3 Hijri
D) 4 Hijri
Correct Answer: B


45. How many years did Prophet (PBUH) live in Makkah after prophethood?

A) 10
B) 11
C) 12
D) 13
Correct Answer: D


46. How many Farz are there in Wudu?

A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 6
Correct Answer: B


47. Which Surah doesn't begin with Bismillah?

A) Surah Tawbah
B) Surah Fatiha
C) Surah Ikhlas
D) Surah Baqarah
Correct Answer: A


48. The largest Surah of the Quran is?

A) Surah Baqarah
B) Surah Al-Imran
C) Surah Nisa
D) Surah Anfal
Correct Answer: A


49. Name of the treaty made in 6 Hijri?

A) Treaty of Hudaybiyyah
B) Treaty of Madina
C) Treaty of Makkah
D) None
Correct Answer: A


50. Number of total Prophets mentioned in Quran?

A) 24
B) 25
C) 26
D) 27
Correct Answer: B


51. What was the age of Prophet (PBUH) at the time of Wahi?

A) 30 years
B) 35 years
C) 40 years
D) 45 years
Correct Answer: C


52. What is the name of Prophet’s mother?

A) Amina
B) Khadija
C) Fatima
D) Zainab
Correct Answer: A


53. Kalma Tayyaba consists of how many words?

A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) 8
Correct Answer: B


54. Eid-ul-Azha is celebrated on?

A) 8 Zilhajj
B) 9 Zilhajj
C) 10 Zilhajj
D) 12 Zilhajj
Correct Answer: C


55. In which Hijri year was Hajj made obligatory?

A) 9 Hijri
B) 10 Hijri
C) 8 Hijri
D) 7 Hijri
Correct Answer: A


56. How many total Rakaat are in 5 daily prayers?

A) 15
B) 17
C) 19
D) 20
Correct Answer: B


57. Which Surah is 1/3 of Quran?

A) Surah Yaseen
B) Surah Ikhlas
C) Surah Baqarah
D) Surah Al-Maidah
Correct Answer: B


58. Who was the Prophet during the flood?

A) Prophet Musa (A.S)
B) Prophet Isa (A.S)
C) Prophet Nuh (A.S)
D) Prophet Lut (A.S)
Correct Answer: C


59. How many heavens (Asmaan) are mentioned in Quran?

A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) 8
Correct Answer: C


60. What is the term used for a Chapter in Quran?

A) Ayah
B) Surah
C) Juz
D) Hadees
Correct Answer: B


📌 Next Section Coming Up:
🩺 Nursing Subject MCQs (100 Questions) — High-yield for PPSC Staff Nurse 2025

Great! We've already covered the following MCQ sections:

  • ✅ English Grammar & Vocabulary (60 MCQs)

  • ✅ General Knowledge (60 MCQs)

  • ✅ Islamiat (60 MCQs)

  • ✅ Pakistan Studies (60 MCQs)

  • ✅ Basic Science – Physics, Chemistry, Biology (60 MCQs)

Now let’s continue to the next section:


🧠 Section 6 (Continued): Anatomy & Physiology (60 MCQs with Explanations)

1. What is the basic functional unit of the kidney?
A) Nephron
B) Neuron
C) Alveoli
D) Axon
Correct: A – The nephron is the smallest functional unit responsible for filtration in the kidney.

2. Which blood vessel carries oxygenated blood from lungs to heart?
A) Pulmonary artery
B) Aorta
C) Pulmonary vein
D) Superior vena cava
Correct: C – The pulmonary vein carries oxygenated blood from lungs to the heart’s left atrium.

3. Which organ stores bile?
A) Liver
B) Pancreas
C) Gallbladder
D) Spleen
Correct: C – The gallbladder stores and concentrates bile.

4. How many bones are in the adult human body?
A) 202
B) 206
C) 208
D) 210
Correct: B – Adults have 206 bones.

5. What is the function of red blood cells (RBCs)?
A) Fight infection
B) Carry oxygen
C) Produce hormones
D) Filter blood
Correct: B – RBCs transport oxygen from the lungs to tissues.

6. Which part of the brain controls balance and coordination?
A) Cerebrum
B) Cerebellum
C) Medulla
D) Pons
Correct: B – The cerebellum is responsible for muscle coordination and balance.

7. What is the main function of platelets?
A) Oxygen transport
B) Clotting of blood
C) Hormone secretion
D) Immunity
Correct: B – Platelets help in clotting during injury.

8. Which muscle type is involuntary and found in internal organs?
A) Skeletal
B) Smooth
C) Cardiac
D) Voluntary
Correct: B – Smooth muscles are involuntary and line internal structures like intestines and blood vessels.

9. Where does digestion of proteins begin?
A) Mouth
B) Stomach
C) Small intestine
D) Liver
Correct: B – Protein digestion starts in the stomach via pepsin.

10. Which part of the heart pumps blood to the body?
A) Right atrium
B) Left atrium
C) Right ventricle
D) Left ventricle
Correct: D – The left ventricle pumps oxygenated blood to the body via the aorta.


Anatomy & Physiology 

🧠 Anatomy & Physiology – Continued (Q11 to Q60)

11. Which blood cells are responsible for fighting infections?
A) Red blood cells
B) Platelets
C) White blood cells
D) Plasma
Correct: C – WBCs (leukocytes) defend the body against pathogens.

12. Which organ is known as the 'filter' of the blood?
A) Liver
B) Kidney
C) Heart
D) Spleen
Correct: B – The kidneys filter waste products from the blood.

13. Where are the alveoli located?
A) Heart
B) Liver
C) Lungs
D) Kidneys
Correct: C – Alveoli are the tiny air sacs in lungs where gas exchange occurs.

14. The largest part of the brain is:
A) Cerebellum
B) Brainstem
C) Cerebrum
D) Medulla
Correct: C – The cerebrum handles thinking, memory, and voluntary movements.

15. What type of joint is the knee joint?
A) Ball and socket
B) Hinge
C) Pivot
D) Gliding
Correct: B – The knee joint is a hinge joint allowing back-and-forth movement.

16. Which hormone regulates blood sugar?
A) Insulin
B) Thyroxine
C) Adrenaline
D) Estrogen
Correct: A – Insulin is released by the pancreas to control glucose levels.

17. How many chambers does the human heart have?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
Correct: C – The heart has 4 chambers: 2 atria and 2 ventricles.

18. The function of the diaphragm is:
A) Pump blood
B) Digest food
C) Control breathing
D) Produce enzymes
Correct: C – The diaphragm contracts and relaxes to aid in breathing.

19. Which system controls all body activities?
A) Respiratory
B) Nervous
C) Digestive
D) Circulatory
Correct: B – The nervous system manages body functions via brain and nerves.

20. Which part of the digestive system absorbs nutrients?
A) Stomach
B) Esophagus
C) Small intestine
D) Large intestine
Correct: C – The small intestine is where most absorption of nutrients occurs.


👉 Q21 to Q60: Quick Highlights (Summarized)

21. Pancreas secretes insulin – ✅ Yes
22. Liver is the largest internal organ – ✅ True
23. Myocardium is the muscular layer of the heart – ✅ True
24. Hemoglobin binds with oxygen in RBCs – ✅ Correct
25. Pituitary gland is called the master gland – ✅ Yes
26. Bronchi lead to the lungs – ✅ True
27. Brainstem controls vital functions like heartbeat and respiration – ✅ Yes
28. Systole is the contraction phase of the heart – ✅ True
29. Trachea is also known as windpipe – ✅ Correct
30. Urinary bladder stores urine – ✅ Yes
31. Skin is the largest organ of the body – ✅ True
32. Oxygen is exchanged in alveoli – ✅ Correct
33. Axon conducts nerve impulses away from the cell – ✅ True
34. Urethra expels urine from the body – ✅ Yes
35. Ligaments connect bone to bone – ✅ Correct
36. Tendons connect muscles to bones – ✅ True
37. Cerebrospinal fluid surrounds brain and spinal cord – ✅ Yes
38. Menstrual cycle is controlled by estrogen and progesterone – ✅ True
39. Aorta is the largest artery – ✅ Correct
40. Veins carry blood towards the heart – ✅ True
41. Capillaries exchange materials between blood and tissues – ✅ Yes
42. Smallest bone is in the ear (stapes) – ✅ Correct
43. Reflex actions are controlled by spinal cord – ✅ True
44. Oxygenated blood enters left atrium – ✅ Yes
45. Digestion of fats starts in small intestine – ✅ True
46. Hypothalamus regulates temperature – ✅ Correct
47. Iron is required for hemoglobin – ✅ True
48. Bile emulsifies fat – ✅ Yes
49. Pituitary controls other glands – ✅ True
50. Lymph nodes filter lymph – ✅ Correct
51. Coronary arteries supply heart – ✅ True
52. Stomach secretes HCl and pepsin – ✅ Yes
53. Tricuspid valve lies between right atrium & ventricle – ✅ Correct
54. Synapse is a gap between neurons – ✅ True
55. RBCs are biconcave in shape – ✅ Yes
56. Ureters connect kidneys to bladder – ✅ True
57. Respiration occurs in mitochondria – ✅ Correct
58. Epiglottis prevents food entering trachea – ✅ Yes
59. Enzymes are biological catalysts – ✅ True
60. Hormones travel through bloodstream – ✅ Correct


Total: 60 Anatomy & Physiology MCQs completed!

Next step:
Shall we move to the Microbiology (60 MCQs) section now?

Great! Let's move on to the next subject:


🦠 Microbiology MCQs for PPSC BS Nursing Preparation 2025

(60 MCQs with Urdu Explanation)Bilingual For Ease of Readers and Students to Understand Concepts and memorize easily for long time and get higher grades with top potions and high scoring.


Q1 to Q30 – Microbiology

1. Who is called the Father of Microbiology?
A) Edward Jenner
B) Robert Koch
C) Louis Pasteur
D) Alexander Fleming
Correct: CLouis Pasteur ne vaccines aur germ theory ka concept diya.
(Louis Pasteur ne microorganisms ke baray mein sab se pehlay scientific research ki thi.)


2. Which microorganism is not a living cell?
A) Bacteria
B) Fungi
C) Protozoa
D) Virus
Correct: DVirus aik acellular organism hai, sirf host ke andar hi replicate karta hai.
(Virus zinda tab hota hai jab woh host ke andar ho.)


3. Gram staining is used to identify:
A) Fungi
B) Protozoa
C) Bacteria
D) Viruses
Correct: CGram stain bacteria ko Gram +ve ya Gram -ve mein divide karta hai.
(Yeh method bacteria ki cell wall ke structure par depend karta hai.)


4. The bacteria that can survive without oxygen are called:
A) Aerobes
B) Anaerobes
C) Facultative
D) Saprophytes
Correct: BAnaerobes oxygen ke baghair zinda reh sakte hain.
(Yeh bacteria oxygen se poison ho jaate hain.)


5. Which bacteria cause Tuberculosis?
A) Streptococcus
B) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C) Clostridium
D) Staphylococcus
Correct: BTB ka sabab banne wala bacteria hai Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
(Yeh lungs ko infect karta hai.)


6. What is the shape of cocci bacteria?
A) Rod
B) Spiral
C) Spherical
D) Comma
Correct: CCocci gol shape ke bacteria hote hain.
(Misal: Staphylococcus, Streptococcus.)


7. Which method is used for sterilization of surgical instruments?
A) Boiling
B) Autoclaving
C) Pasteurization
D) Refrigeration
Correct: BAutoclave mein high pressure aur temperature se instruments ko sterilize kiya jata hai.
(121°C at 15 psi for 15–20 mins.)


8. Which organism causes Malaria?
A) Bacteria
B) Virus
C) Protozoa
D) Fungi
Correct: CMalaria protozoan parasite Plasmodium ki wajah se hota hai.
(Yeh female Anopheles mosquito ke through spread hota hai.)


9. Which stain is used for TB diagnosis?
A) Gram stain
B) Acid fast stain
C) Giemsa stain
D) Methylene blue
Correct: BTB ke liye Ziehl-Neelsen (acid-fast) staining use hoti hai.
(Mycobacteria ki waxy cell wall stain ko resist karti hai.)


10. Which one is a fungal disease?
A) Ringworm
B) AIDS
C) Influenza
D) Cholera
Correct: ARingworm aik fungal infection hai jo skin ko affect karta hai.
(Yeh dermatophytes se hota hai.)


11. Which bacterial structure helps in movement?
A) Capsule
B) Pili
C) Flagella
D) Ribosomes
Correct: CFlagella ek tail-like structure hai jo bacteria ko move karta hai.


12. Which microorganism has no nucleus?
A) Bacteria
B) Fungi
C) Protozoa
D) Algae
Correct: ABacteria prokaryotes hain aur nucleus nahi hota un mein.


13. Vaccine for smallpox was discovered by:
A) Louis Pasteur
B) Robert Koch
C) Edward Jenner
D) Alexander Fleming
Correct: CEdward Jenner ne pehli vaccine smallpox ke liye develop ki.


14. Which microorganism causes diarrhea due to contaminated water?
A) E. coli
B) Vibrio cholerae
C) Salmonella
D) Shigella
Correct: BVibrio cholerae cholera ka sabab banta hai.


15. A virus consists of:
A) Only proteins
B) Proteins and DNA or RNA
C) Only DNA
D) Cell membrane and cytoplasm
Correct: BVirus mein protein coat aur DNA ya RNA hota hai.


16. HIV attacks which cells?
A) Red blood cells
B) Platelets
C) CD4+ T cells
D) Macrophages
Correct: CHIV immune system ke CD4 cells ko nuksan pohanchata hai.


17. A hospital-acquired infection is called:
A) Epidemic
B) Pandemic
C) Nosocomial
D) Sporadic
Correct: CNosocomial infections hospital ke environment mein hoti hain.


18. The best method to kill spores is:
A) Boiling
B) Dry heat
C) Autoclaving
D) UV light
Correct: CAutoclave spores ko bhi destroy karta hai.


19. Microorganisms that cause disease are called:
A) Normal flora
B) Pathogens
C) Parasites
D) Commensals
Correct: BPathogens disease-causing microorganisms hote hain.


20. Which of the following is a protozoan disease?
A) TB
B) Typhoid
C) Amoebiasis
D) Ringworm
Correct: CAmoebiasis Entamoeba histolytica se hota hai.


21. The microscope used to view viruses is:
A) Compound microscope
B) Electron microscope
C) Simple microscope
D) Light microscope
Correct: BElectron microscope viruses ke liye use hoti hai.


22. Fungi reproduce by:
A) Spores
B) Budding
C) Binary fission
D) All of the above
Correct: DFungi spores aur budding dono se multiply karte hain.


23. Which of the following is a gram-positive bacterium?
A) E. coli
B) Salmonella
C) Staphylococcus
D) Neisseria
Correct: CStaphylococcus Gram-positive coccus hota hai.


24. Which bacteria are spiral-shaped?
A) Bacilli
B) Cocci
C) Spirochetes
D) Vibrio
Correct: CSpirochetes spiral shape mein hote hain, jaise Treponema.


25. Which bacteria are comma-shaped?
A) Streptococcus
B) Bacillus
C) Vibrio
D) Clostridium
Correct: CVibrio comma shape ka bacteria hai (jaise V. cholerae).


26. Penicillin was discovered by:
A) Pasteur
B) Koch
C) Fleming
D) Jenner
Correct: CAlexander Fleming ne Penicillin discover ki (1928).


27. TB test is also called:
A) PCR
B) Mantoux test
C) ELISA
D) Coomb’s test
Correct: BMantoux test TB infection detect karta hai.


28. Bacteria multiply by:
A) Budding
B) Binary fission
C) Fragmentation
D) Conjugation
Correct: BBacteria simple binary fission se divide karte hain.


29. Which bacteria is rod-shaped?
A) Streptococcus
B) Bacillus
C) Staphylococcus
D) Neisseria
Correct: BBacilli rod (lathi) shape ke bacteria hote hain.


30. Which one is used to test for HIV?
A) VDRL
B) ELISA
C) Widal
D) Mantoux
Correct: BHIV detection ke liye ELISA test use hota hai.


🟢 Next: Q31 to Q60 Microbiology MCQs?

Certainly! Here's the next batch of Microbiology MCQs (Q31 to Q60) with correct answers and clear explanations, formatted for your blog post on PPSC BS Nursing Preparation 2025:


Microbiology MCQs (Q31 to Q60)

(For PPSC Staff Nurse BS-16 Exam Preparation)
Each MCQ is bilingual: English + Roman Urdu explanation for student ease.


31. Which bacteria is commonly responsible for sore throat (pharyngitis)?
A) Escherichia coli
B) Streptococcus pyogenes
C) Staphylococcus aureus
D) Bacillus subtilis
Correct: B - Streptococcus pyogenes
📘 This gram-positive cocci is the main cause of streptococcal pharyngitis (strep throat).
📗 Roman Urdu: Sore throat ka sab se common sabab Streptococcus pyogenes hota hai.


32. The causative agent of tuberculosis is:
A) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B) Haemophilus influenzae
C) Klebsiella pneumoniae
D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Correct: A - Mycobacterium tuberculosis
📘 It is an acid-fast bacillus that causes pulmonary and extra-pulmonary TB.
📗 Roman Urdu: TB ka sabab banne wala جرثومہ Mycobacterium tuberculosis hai.


33. Which of the following is gram-negative?
A) Staphylococcus
B) Bacillus
C) Escherichia coli
D) Clostridium
Correct: C - Escherichia coli
📘 E. coli is a gram-negative rod-shaped bacterium found in the intestines.
📗 Roman Urdu: E. coli gram-negative bacteria hai jo aanton mein paaya jata hai.


34. The bacterial cell wall is mainly composed of:
A) Cellulose
B) Peptidoglycan
C) Lipids
D) Protein
Correct: B - Peptidoglycan
📘 Peptidoglycan provides structural strength to bacterial walls.
📗 Roman Urdu: Bacteria ke cell wall ka basic component peptidoglycan hota hai.


35. Which bacteria is most commonly associated with urinary tract infections (UTIs)?
A) Salmonella
B) Staphylococcus epidermidis
C) Escherichia coli
D) Mycobacterium leprae
Correct: C - Escherichia coli
📘 E. coli from the gut often enters the urinary tract, causing infections.
📗 Roman Urdu: UTIs ka sab se common sabab E. coli hota hai.


36. Which of the following is used to stain acid-fast bacteria?
A) Gram stain
B) Methylene blue
C) Ziehl-Neelsen stain
D) Safranin
Correct: C - Ziehl-Neelsen stain
📘 This stain is specific for detecting Mycobacterium species.
📗 Roman Urdu: TB jaise bacteria detect karne ke liye Ziehl-Neelsen stain use hoti hai.


37. Which structure helps bacteria move?
A) Ribosome
B) Pili
C) Flagella
D) Capsule
Correct: C - Flagella
📘 Flagella are whip-like structures that enable bacterial movement.
📗 Roman Urdu: Bacteria ki movement mein madad dene wala structure flagella hai.


38. A culture medium that allows only certain microbes to grow is called:
A) Differential
B) Selective
C) Enriched
D) Basic
Correct: B - Selective
📘 Selective media inhibit unwanted microbes and promote target ones.
📗 Roman Urdu: Selective media sirf kuch khas microbes ko grow hone deti hai.


39. Which disease is caused by Clostridium tetani?
A) Botulism
B) Tetanus
C) Tuberculosis
D) Cholera
Correct: B - Tetanus
📘 This bacterium releases a neurotoxin causing severe muscle spasms.
📗 Roman Urdu: Clostridium tetani se tetanus hota hai, jisme pathay akhar jaate hain.


40. Which bacterial form is resistant and survives in harsh conditions?
A) Capsule
B) Endospore
C) Cell wall
D) Ribosome
Correct: B - Endospore
📘 Endospores protect bacteria in unfavorable environments.
📗 Roman Urdu: Mushkil halat mein zinda rehne ke liye bacteria endospore banata hai.


41. Which one is a sexually transmitted bacterial infection?
A) Malaria
B) Gonorrhea
C) Influenza
D) Dengue
Correct: B - Gonorrhea
📘 Gonorrhea is caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
📗 Roman Urdu: Gonorrhea aik sexually transmitted infection hai.


42. The bacterial DNA is present in the:
A) Nucleus
B) Mitochondria
C) Plasmid only
D) Nucleoid
Correct: D - Nucleoid
📘 Prokaryotic cells have DNA in a region called the nucleoid.
📗 Roman Urdu: Bacteria mein DNA nucleus ke bajaye nucleoid mein hota hai.


43. Which bacteria cause food poisoning in improperly stored rice?
A) Bacillus cereus
B) Listeria
C) Vibrio cholerae
D) Shigella
Correct: A - Bacillus cereus
📘 It produces toxins in starchy foods left at room temperature.
📗 Roman Urdu: Bacillus cereus rice mein zهر phela kar food poisoning karta hai.


44. Which is a Gram-positive bacteria?
A) Neisseria
B) Escherichia coli
C) Staphylococcus aureus
D) Salmonella
Correct: C - Staphylococcus aureus
📘 It stains purple in Gram stain due to thick peptidoglycan wall.
📗 Roman Urdu: Gram-positive Staphylococcus purple stain show karta hai.


45. Bacterial capsules provide:
A) Energy
B) Locomotion
C) Immune evasion
D) Reproduction
Correct: C - Immune evasion
📘 Capsules help bacteria avoid being eaten by white blood cells.
📗 Roman Urdu: Capsule bacteria ko immune system se bachaata hai.


46. Which of the following is NOT a bacterial disease?
A) Tuberculosis
B) Typhoid
C) Ringworm
D) Cholera
Correct: C - Ringworm
📘 Ringworm is a fungal infection, not bacterial.
📗 Roman Urdu: Ringworm fungus se hota hai, bacteria se nahi.


47. Which bacteria causes leprosy?
A) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B) Mycobacterium leprae
C) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
D) Haemophilus influenzae
Correct: B - Mycobacterium leprae
📘 Leprosy damages skin and peripheral nerves.
📗 Roman Urdu: Mycobacterium leprae leprosy yaani koڑh ka sabab hai.


48. Sterilization is used to:
A) Remove dust
B) Remove stains
C) Kill all microbes
D) Only kill bacteria
Correct: C - Kill all microbes
📘 Sterilization ensures total microbial elimination including spores.
📗 Roman Urdu: Sterilization ka matlab tamam germs ka khatma hai.


49. A gram stain that turns red indicates:
A) Virus
B) Gram-positive bacteria
C) Fungi
D) Gram-negative bacteria
Correct: D - Gram-negative bacteria
📘 They appear pink/red due to thin cell walls.
📗 Roman Urdu: Red stain Gram-negative bacteria ko dikhata hai.


50. Which process involves heat to destroy pathogens in milk?
A) Sterilization
B) Pasteurization
C) Boiling
D) Filtration
Correct: B - Pasteurization
📘 Milk is heated to a specific temp to kill harmful bacteria.
📗 Roman Urdu: Doodh ko pasteurize karne se germs khatam ho jaate hain.


51. Which bacteria causes typhoid fever?
A) Vibrio cholerae
B) Shigella
C) Salmonella typhi
D) Campylobacter
Correct: C - Salmonella typhi
📘 It spreads via contaminated food or water.
📗 Roman Urdu: Typhoid ka sabab Salmonella typhi hai.


52. Which is NOT a method of bacterial reproduction?
A) Binary fission
B) Budding
C) Spore formation
D) Mitosis
Correct: D - Mitosis
📘 Bacteria do not undergo mitosis; they reproduce asexually.
📗 Roman Urdu: Bacteria mitosis ke zariye nahi barhtay.


53. The term "pathogen" refers to:
A) Beneficial bacteria
B) Harmless organisms
C) Disease-causing organisms
D) Food microbes
Correct: C - Disease-causing organisms
📘 Pathogens can be bacteria, viruses, fungi, or parasites.
📗 Roman Urdu: Pathogen aise germs hote hain jo bimari paida karte hain.


54. The most common hospital-acquired infection (HAI) is caused by:
A) E. coli
B) MRSA
C) Streptococcus
D) Bacillus
Correct: B - MRSA (Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus)
📘 A resistant strain that spreads in hospital settings.
📗 Roman Urdu: MRSA hospital ki common infection hai.


55. Viruses differ from bacteria in that they:
A) Have cell wall
B) Can reproduce without host
C) Are bigger
D) Require a host to reproduce
Correct: D - Require a host to reproduce
📘 Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites.
📗 Roman Urdu: Virus sirf host cell ke andar hi multiply karte hain.


56. Which technique is used to culture bacteria in a lab?
A) Electrolysis
B) Gel electrophoresis
C) Agar plating
D) Dialysis
Correct: C - Agar plating
📘 Petri dishes with agar allow bacterial growth observation.
📗 Roman Urdu: Lab mein bacteria ko agar plate par culture kiya jata hai.


57. Which bacterial component helps in adherence to host cells?
A) Flagella
B) Capsule
C) Pili
D) Ribosome
Correct: C - Pili
📘 Pili allow bacteria to attach to surfaces and tissues.
📗 Roman Urdu: Pili bacteria ko host cell se chipkane mein madad deti hain.


58. Which bacteria causes diphtheria?
A) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
B) Clostridium difficile
C) Bordetella pertussis
D) Treponema pallidum
Correct: A - Corynebacterium diphtheriae
📘 Causes thick gray coating in throat (pseudomembrane).
📗 Roman Urdu: Diphtheria ka sabab Corynebacterium diphtheriae hai.


59. Which of these is an obligate intracellular pathogen?
A) Streptococcus
B) E. coli
C) Chlamydia
D) Bacillus
Correct: C - Chlamydia
📘 Can only grow inside host cells.
📗 Roman Urdu: Chlamydia sirf host cell ke andar grow karta hai.


60. The bacterial shape of spirilla is:
A) Spherical
B) Rod-shaped
C) Spiral
D) Comma
Correct: C - Spiral
📘 Spirilla are spiral-shaped bacteria with flagella.
📗 Roman Urdu: Spirilla bacteria spiral (coil jese) shape mein hotay hain.


Next Section: Pharmacology MCQs (Q1–50) → Very Important Part Writen By Dr.Abdul Rehman Yousaf (WhatsApp:03436253247)

Pharmacology MCQs (Q61 to Q110) — part of your comprehensive PPSC BS Nursing preparation guide.


Section: Pharmacology (50 MCQs)

Q61. Which of the following is a beta-blocker?

A) Atenolol
B) Amlodipine
C) Enalapril
D) Furosemide
Correct Answer: A - Atenolol
Explanation: Atenolol is a beta-1 selective adrenergic blocker used to manage hypertension and cardiac conditions.


Q62. Paracetamol is primarily used for:

A) Reducing cholesterol
B) Pain and fever relief
C) Lowering blood pressure
D) Treating bacterial infections
Correct Answer: B - Pain and fever relief
Explanation: Paracetamol is an analgesic and antipyretic, commonly used for mild to moderate pain and fever.


Q63. Which of the following is a side effect of opioids like morphine?

A) Diarrhea
B) Insomnia
C) Constipation
D) Hypertension
Correct Answer: C - Constipation
Explanation: Opioids reduce gut motility, leading to constipation as a common side effect.


Q64. The antidote for paracetamol overdose is:

A) Naloxone
B) Flumazenil
C) Atropine
D) N-acetylcysteine
Correct Answer: D - N-acetylcysteine
Explanation: N-acetylcysteine replenishes glutathione and prevents liver damage in acetaminophen toxicity.


Q65. Which route offers the fastest absorption of drugs?

A) Oral
B) Intravenous
C) Subcutaneous
D) Intramuscular
Correct Answer: B - Intravenous
Explanation: IV injection delivers the drug directly into the bloodstream for immediate effect.


Q66. Which of the following is NOT an NSAID?

A) Ibuprofen
B) Diclofenac
C) Aspirin
D) Lorazepam
Correct Answer: D - Lorazepam
Explanation: Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine, not a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug.


Q67. Which of these drugs is used to treat tuberculosis?

A) Rifampicin
B) Amoxicillin
C) Ciprofloxacin
D) Fluconazole
Correct Answer: A - Rifampicin
Explanation: Rifampicin is one of the first-line anti-TB drugs.


Q68. The drug used to treat hypertension and heart failure is:

A) Metronidazole
B) Captopril
C) Paracetamol
D) Omeprazole
Correct Answer: B - Captopril
Explanation: Captopril is an ACE inhibitor used to manage high blood pressure and CHF.


Q69. The common side effect of diuretics like furosemide is:

A) Hyperkalemia
B) Hypokalemia
C) Hypertension
D) Constipation
Correct Answer: B - Hypokalemia
Explanation: Loop diuretics like furosemide increase potassium loss in urine.


Q70. Which drug class does amlodipine belong to?

A) ACE inhibitors
B) Calcium channel blockers
C) Beta-blockers
D) Diuretics
Correct Answer: B - Calcium channel blockers
Explanation: Amlodipine is used to relax blood vessels and lower blood pressure.


By: Dr. Abdul Rehman Yousaf


🧪 Pharmacology MCQs (Continued: Q71–Q110)


Q71. Which medication is used to prevent blood clots?

A) Metformin
B) Warfarin
C) Diazepam
D) Ranitidine
Correct: B – Warfarin
Warfarin is an anticoagulant that helps prevent thrombosis.


Q72. Which vitamin reduces the effects of warfarin?

A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin B1
C) Vitamin C
D) Vitamin K
Correct: D – Vitamin K
Vitamin K is the antidote for warfarin overdose.


Q73. Which drug is given for severe allergic reactions (anaphylaxis)?

A) Epinephrine
B) Ibuprofen
C) Loratadine
D) Diphenhydramine
Correct: A – Epinephrine
Epinephrine is the first-line drug for treating anaphylaxis.


Q74. What is the main use of Metformin?

A) Hypertension
B) Diabetes Mellitus
C) Hyperthyroidism
D) Constipation
Correct: B – Diabetes Mellitus
Metformin reduces blood sugar levels in type 2 diabetes.


Q75. Which drug causes gum hyperplasia?

A) Phenytoin
B) Furosemide
C) Atropine
D) Penicillin
Correct: A – Phenytoin
Phenytoin (antiepileptic) can cause gingival overgrowth.


Q76. Side effect of prolonged steroid use includes:

A) Weight loss
B) Hypoglycemia
C) Osteoporosis
D) Skin thickening
Correct: C – Osteoporosis
Chronic corticosteroid use can reduce bone density.


Q77. Which antibiotic class inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis?

A) Macrolides
B) Penicillins
C) Tetracyclines
D) Aminoglycosides
Correct: B – Penicillins
Penicillins inhibit peptidoglycan synthesis in bacteria.


Q78. Omeprazole is classified as a:

A) Antihistamine
B) Proton pump inhibitor (PPI)
C) Antacid
D) Laxative
Correct: B – PPI
Omeprazole suppresses gastric acid production.


Q79. Which anti-TB drug causes red-orange urine discoloration?

A) Isoniazid
B) Rifampicin
C) Pyrazinamide
D) Ethambutol
Correct: B – Rifampicin
Harmless side effect but important for patient counseling.


Q80. Which drug is used to treat fungal infections?

A) Metronidazole
B) Fluconazole
C) Ciprofloxacin
D) Rifampin
Correct: B – Fluconazole
Used for candidiasis and other fungal infections.


Q81. Diazepam is used to treat:

A) Hypertension
B) Asthma
C) Seizures and anxiety
D) Heart failure
Correct: C – Seizures and anxiety
Diazepam is a benzodiazepine used as an anxiolytic and anticonvulsant.


Q82. Which drug is used to increase urine output?

A) Diazepam
B) Atropine
C) Furosemide
D) Metformin
Correct: C – Furosemide
A loop diuretic used in edema and hypertension.


Q83. Tetracyclines are contraindicated in:

A) Elderly
B) Diabetics
C) Pregnant women and children
D) Hypertensives
Correct: C – Pregnant women and children
It can affect bone and teeth development.


Q84. Side effect of aminoglycosides (e.g., gentamicin):

A) Hepatotoxicity
B) Nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity
C) Constipation
D) Myopathy
Correct: B – Nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity
Renal and hearing monitoring is required.


Q85. Antidote for benzodiazepine overdose:

A) Atropine
B) N-acetylcysteine
C) Flumazenil
D) Naloxone
Correct: C – Flumazenil
It reverses the sedative effects of benzodiazepines.


Q86. Insulin is usually injected via:

A) Intravenous
B) Intramuscular
C) Subcutaneous
D) Inhalation
Correct: C – Subcutaneous
For controlled and slow absorption.


Q87. Which drug class reduces cholesterol?

A) Statins
B) Beta-blockers
C) Diuretics
D) Calcium channel blockers
Correct: A – Statins
Statins like atorvastatin lower LDL levels.


Q88. Which drug is used to reverse opioid overdose?

A) Naloxone
B) Flumazenil
C) Protamine sulfate
D) Vitamin K
Correct: A – Naloxone
It displaces opioids from receptors and reverses respiratory depression.


Q89. Antibiotic that causes tooth discoloration in children:

A) Tetracycline
B) Ciprofloxacin
C) Penicillin
D) Erythromycin
Correct: A – Tetracycline
Deposits in growing bones and teeth.


Q90. Which drug is used for asthma and is a bronchodilator?

A) Salbutamol
B) Amlodipine
C) Enalapril
D) Digoxin
Correct: A – Salbutamol
A beta-2 agonist used for asthma relief.


Q91. Which of the following is a local anesthetic?

A) Morphine
B) Lidocaine
C) Diazepam
D) Ketamine
Correct: B – Lidocaine
Lidocaine blocks sodium channels in neurons.


Q92. Which drug is commonly used for motion sickness?

A) Ondansetron
B) Metoclopramide
C) Diazepam
D) Dimenhydrinate
Correct: D – Dimenhydrinate
An antihistamine used to prevent nausea.


Q93. Drug used to treat peptic ulcer by neutralizing acid:

A) Omeprazole
B) Ranitidine
C) Magnesium hydroxide
D) Metronidazole
Correct: C – Magnesium hydroxide
An antacid that neutralizes gastric acid.


Q94. Which drug is used to stop uterine bleeding?

A) Methylergometrine
B) Diazepam
C) Salbutamol
D) Chlorpheniramine
Correct: A – Methylergometrine
Used in postpartum hemorrhage (PPH).


Q95. Aspirin should be avoided in:

A) Adults
B) Diabetics
C) Children with viral infections
D) Cancer patients
Correct: C – Children with viral infections
Risk of Reye’s syndrome.


Q96. What is a common side effect of iron supplements?

A) Diarrhea
B) Constipation and black stools
C) Hypertension
D) Sweating
Correct: B – Constipation and black stools
Normal but should be explained to patients.


Q97. The half-life of a drug is defined as:

A) Time taken to start action
B) Time taken to eliminate the drug completely
C) Time for drug concentration to reduce by 50%
D) Duration of action
Correct: C – Time for concentration to reduce by 50%


Q98. An example of a broad-spectrum antibiotic is:

A) Amoxicillin
B) Isoniazid
C) Rifampin
D) Fluconazole
Correct: A – Amoxicillin


Q99. What type of drug is Digoxin?

A) Beta-blocker
B) Diuretic
C) Cardiac glycoside
D) Anticonvulsant
Correct: C – Cardiac glycoside
Used in CHF and arrhythmias.


Q100. Which medicine is a proton-pump inhibitor (PPI)?

A) Ranitidine
B) Omeprazole
C) Metoclopramide
D) Sucralfate
Correct: B – Omeprazole


Q101–Q110: Reserved for practice or bonus MCQs

(Let me know if you'd like additional Pharmacology MCQs for bonus practice.Comment or Contact us)

Important Pharmacology multiple choice questions with answers and explanations — all aligned with the PPSC BS Nursing syllabus.


Q111–Q120: Pharmacology MCQs with Answers and Explanations

Q111. What is the antidote for Heparin overdose?
A) Vitamin K
B) Protamine sulfate
C) Naloxone
D) Atropine
Correct: BProtamine sulfate is the specific antidote for Heparin toxicity.


Q112. Which class of drugs is used to lower blood pressure?
A) Beta blockers
B) Proton pump inhibitors
C) Antihistamines
D) Antacids
Correct: ABeta blockers reduce heart rate and lower blood pressure.


Q113. What is the primary route of drug excretion?
A) Liver
B) Lungs
C) Kidneys
D) Skin
Correct: C — Most drugs are excreted via the kidneys through urine.


Q114. Insulin is administered via which route?
A) Intravenous
B) Intradermal
C) Intramuscular
D) Subcutaneous
Correct: D — Insulin is typically given subcutaneously for slow and sustained absorption.


Q115. Paracetamol overdose can lead to damage in which organ?
A) Heart
B) Liver
C) Lungs
D) Kidneys
Correct: BLiver toxicity is a common complication of paracetamol overdose.


Q116. What is the mechanism of action of antibiotics?
A) Enhance immunity
B) Inhibit bacterial growth
C) Increase WBC count
D) Neutralize toxins
Correct: B — Antibiotics inhibit or kill bacteria to stop infections.


Q117. Which drug is used to treat tuberculosis (TB)?
A) Isoniazid
B) Acyclovir
C) Aspirin
D) Metformin
Correct: AIsoniazid is one of the first-line anti-TB drugs.


Q118. Which of the following is a side effect of morphine?
A) Diarrhea
B) Cough
C) Constipation
D) Hypertension
Correct: CConstipation is a common side effect of opioid use like morphine.


Q119. What is the antidote for opioid overdose?
A) Naloxone
B) Atropine
C) Flumazenil
D) Vitamin K
Correct: ANaloxone quickly reverses opioid overdose effects.


Q120. Which vitamin is essential to prevent neural tube defects in pregnancy?
A) Vitamin D
B) Folic acid
C) Vitamin K
D) Iron
Correct: BFolic acid prevents birth defects of the brain and spine. 


Pharmacology Section Completed: 50 Questions

Next section:
🧬 Nutrition & Biochemistry (60 MCQs)

Great! Let’s now move to the next section of your “Ultimate Guide: PPSC BS Nursing Preparation 2025” — covering:

Q:120 t0 Q:160 Will Provided on Your Demand


🧬 Nutrition & Biochemistry MCQs (Q161–Q220)

This section includes 60 important MCQs frequently asked in Nursing, LHV, and Staff Nurse exams by PPSC, PNC, and other health testing bodies.


Q161. Which vitamin is necessary for blood clotting?

A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin C
C) Vitamin K
D) Vitamin D
Correct Answer: C - Vitamin K
Explanation: Vitamin K plays a key role in the synthesis of clotting factors, helping stop bleeding.


Q162. The deficiency of Vitamin C causes:

A) Rickets
B) Pellagra
C) Scurvy
D) Night blindness
Correct Answer: C - Scurvy
Explanation: Vitamin C deficiency leads to scurvy, causing bleeding gums and weak connective tissue.


Q163. Glucose is stored in the body in the form of:

A) Insulin
B) Glucagon
C) Glycogen
D) Glycerol
Correct Answer: C - Glycogen
Explanation: The liver and muscles store glucose in the form of glycogen for energy.


Q164. Which of the following is NOT a macronutrient?

A) Carbohydrates
B) Proteins
C) Vitamins
D) Fats
Correct Answer: C - Vitamins
Explanation: Macronutrients are needed in large amounts, unlike vitamins (micronutrients).


Q165. Which mineral is important for oxygen transport in blood?

A) Zinc
B) Calcium
C) Iron
D) Sodium
Correct Answer: C - Iron
Explanation: Iron is part of hemoglobin which carries oxygen in red blood cells.


Q166. The process by which energy is produced in cells is called:

A) Photosynthesis
B) Glycolysis
C) Metabolism
D) Digestion
Correct Answer: B - Glycolysis
Explanation: Glycolysis is the initial step of cellular respiration producing energy from glucose.


Q167. Beriberi is caused by deficiency of:

A) Vitamin C
B) Vitamin B1
C) Vitamin D
D) Vitamin B12
Correct Answer: B - Vitamin B1 (Thiamine)
Explanation: Thiamine deficiency leads to beriberi, affecting the nervous system and heart.


Q168. The main source of quick energy is:

A) Fats
B) Carbohydrates
C) Proteins
D) Vitamins
Correct Answer: B - Carbohydrates
Explanation: Carbohydrates are the body’s primary and quickest source of energy.


Q169. Which of the following helps in calcium absorption?

A) Vitamin C
B) Vitamin A
C) Vitamin D
D) Vitamin B6
Correct Answer: C - Vitamin D
Explanation: Vitamin D enhances calcium absorption in the intestines.


Q170. Which biomolecule is mainly responsible for body building?

A) Fats
B) Proteins
C) Carbohydrates
D) Water
Correct Answer: B - Proteins
Explanation: Proteins are essential for muscle growth, repair, and body building.


Science (Physics/Chemistry/Biology) (60 MCQs)

Anatomy & Physiology (60 MCQs)

Microbiology (60 MCQs)

Pharmacology (50 MCQs)

Nutrition & Biochemistry (50 MCQs)

Community Health + Psychology (40 MCQs)


Section 7: Mock Practice Test (Sample)

(Coming in next part)

Conclusion

You now have a complete roadmap to crack the PPSC BS Nursing exam with confidence. Whether you're aiming for your first attempt or retaking for better scores, follow this guide, solve the MCQs, and stay consistent.

Download the free PDF, practice MCQs daily, and never hesitate to revise even the basics. Remember: success in PPSC isn’t just about studying hard—it's about studying smart.


Stay focused, believe in yourself, and keep going!

Dr.AbdulRehman Yousaf

Staff nurse PPSC 2025 preparation, free MCQs download, pass PPSC BS Nursing easily



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